A peculiar integral identity












3












$begingroup$


Here I was, innocently trying to solve this daunting-looking integral



$$int_0^pi e^{v cos theta cos t} cosh(v sin theta sin t) dt $$



when the inner beauty behind this beast slowly started to disclose itself.





Of course, the first thing I did, was checking if WolframAlpha can help, futilely.

Next on my lookup table was Gradshteyn and Ryzhik. Yet again, the god of integrals had no mercy upon me and I was left to my own device.





To get a first impression I plotted the function, that needs to be integrated, that is for $f_{theta}(t) = e^{cos theta cos t} cosh(sin theta sin t)$, we get the following plots:



enter image description here



Okay, nothing too special about that. So I proceeded by trying to numerically evaluate the integral itself. And then, something strange happened...





Turns out the integral is invariant under $theta$!

Even better, we have




$$int_0^pi e^{v cos theta cos t} cosh(v sin theta sin t) dt = int_0^pi e^{v cos t} dt = pi I_0(v)quad forall theta in [-pi,pi]; ,$$




where for the first equality I just set $theta = 0$ and the second equality is a known identity of the modified Bessel function of the first kind. Now, I only stumbled upon this identity numerically, and I was wondering if someone can share some analytical wisdom regarding this. Put into a question:




Does someone know, why this identity holds?






Bonus



I now face the same integral but with an additional linear term, that is



$$int_0^{pi} tf_{theta}(t)dt ; ,$$
with $f_{theta}$ as defined above. I am hoping that the techniques that illuminate the identity above will also shed some light at this new integral, which by the way is not constant in $theta$ anymore.










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    What's $I_0(v)$?
    $endgroup$
    – YiFan
    5 hours ago










  • $begingroup$
    @YiFan the modified Bessel function of the first kind.
    $endgroup$
    – chickenNinja123
    5 hours ago












  • $begingroup$
    Did you try using the fact that $color{blue}{e^{vcosthetacos t}cosh(vsinthetasin t) =frac{1}{2}left(e^{vcos(t-theta)} + e^{vcos(t+theta)}right)}$? (Obtained by using $cosh u = frac{1}{2}left( e^u + e^{-u}right)$ and the cosine addition formulas ($cos(Apm B) = cos A cos B mp sin A sin B$))
    $endgroup$
    – Minus One-Twelfth
    4 hours ago


















3












$begingroup$


Here I was, innocently trying to solve this daunting-looking integral



$$int_0^pi e^{v cos theta cos t} cosh(v sin theta sin t) dt $$



when the inner beauty behind this beast slowly started to disclose itself.





Of course, the first thing I did, was checking if WolframAlpha can help, futilely.

Next on my lookup table was Gradshteyn and Ryzhik. Yet again, the god of integrals had no mercy upon me and I was left to my own device.





To get a first impression I plotted the function, that needs to be integrated, that is for $f_{theta}(t) = e^{cos theta cos t} cosh(sin theta sin t)$, we get the following plots:



enter image description here



Okay, nothing too special about that. So I proceeded by trying to numerically evaluate the integral itself. And then, something strange happened...





Turns out the integral is invariant under $theta$!

Even better, we have




$$int_0^pi e^{v cos theta cos t} cosh(v sin theta sin t) dt = int_0^pi e^{v cos t} dt = pi I_0(v)quad forall theta in [-pi,pi]; ,$$




where for the first equality I just set $theta = 0$ and the second equality is a known identity of the modified Bessel function of the first kind. Now, I only stumbled upon this identity numerically, and I was wondering if someone can share some analytical wisdom regarding this. Put into a question:




Does someone know, why this identity holds?






Bonus



I now face the same integral but with an additional linear term, that is



$$int_0^{pi} tf_{theta}(t)dt ; ,$$
with $f_{theta}$ as defined above. I am hoping that the techniques that illuminate the identity above will also shed some light at this new integral, which by the way is not constant in $theta$ anymore.










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    What's $I_0(v)$?
    $endgroup$
    – YiFan
    5 hours ago










  • $begingroup$
    @YiFan the modified Bessel function of the first kind.
    $endgroup$
    – chickenNinja123
    5 hours ago












  • $begingroup$
    Did you try using the fact that $color{blue}{e^{vcosthetacos t}cosh(vsinthetasin t) =frac{1}{2}left(e^{vcos(t-theta)} + e^{vcos(t+theta)}right)}$? (Obtained by using $cosh u = frac{1}{2}left( e^u + e^{-u}right)$ and the cosine addition formulas ($cos(Apm B) = cos A cos B mp sin A sin B$))
    $endgroup$
    – Minus One-Twelfth
    4 hours ago
















3












3








3


2



$begingroup$


Here I was, innocently trying to solve this daunting-looking integral



$$int_0^pi e^{v cos theta cos t} cosh(v sin theta sin t) dt $$



when the inner beauty behind this beast slowly started to disclose itself.





Of course, the first thing I did, was checking if WolframAlpha can help, futilely.

Next on my lookup table was Gradshteyn and Ryzhik. Yet again, the god of integrals had no mercy upon me and I was left to my own device.





To get a first impression I plotted the function, that needs to be integrated, that is for $f_{theta}(t) = e^{cos theta cos t} cosh(sin theta sin t)$, we get the following plots:



enter image description here



Okay, nothing too special about that. So I proceeded by trying to numerically evaluate the integral itself. And then, something strange happened...





Turns out the integral is invariant under $theta$!

Even better, we have




$$int_0^pi e^{v cos theta cos t} cosh(v sin theta sin t) dt = int_0^pi e^{v cos t} dt = pi I_0(v)quad forall theta in [-pi,pi]; ,$$




where for the first equality I just set $theta = 0$ and the second equality is a known identity of the modified Bessel function of the first kind. Now, I only stumbled upon this identity numerically, and I was wondering if someone can share some analytical wisdom regarding this. Put into a question:




Does someone know, why this identity holds?






Bonus



I now face the same integral but with an additional linear term, that is



$$int_0^{pi} tf_{theta}(t)dt ; ,$$
with $f_{theta}$ as defined above. I am hoping that the techniques that illuminate the identity above will also shed some light at this new integral, which by the way is not constant in $theta$ anymore.










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$




Here I was, innocently trying to solve this daunting-looking integral



$$int_0^pi e^{v cos theta cos t} cosh(v sin theta sin t) dt $$



when the inner beauty behind this beast slowly started to disclose itself.





Of course, the first thing I did, was checking if WolframAlpha can help, futilely.

Next on my lookup table was Gradshteyn and Ryzhik. Yet again, the god of integrals had no mercy upon me and I was left to my own device.





To get a first impression I plotted the function, that needs to be integrated, that is for $f_{theta}(t) = e^{cos theta cos t} cosh(sin theta sin t)$, we get the following plots:



enter image description here



Okay, nothing too special about that. So I proceeded by trying to numerically evaluate the integral itself. And then, something strange happened...





Turns out the integral is invariant under $theta$!

Even better, we have




$$int_0^pi e^{v cos theta cos t} cosh(v sin theta sin t) dt = int_0^pi e^{v cos t} dt = pi I_0(v)quad forall theta in [-pi,pi]; ,$$




where for the first equality I just set $theta = 0$ and the second equality is a known identity of the modified Bessel function of the first kind. Now, I only stumbled upon this identity numerically, and I was wondering if someone can share some analytical wisdom regarding this. Put into a question:




Does someone know, why this identity holds?






Bonus



I now face the same integral but with an additional linear term, that is



$$int_0^{pi} tf_{theta}(t)dt ; ,$$
with $f_{theta}$ as defined above. I am hoping that the techniques that illuminate the identity above will also shed some light at this new integral, which by the way is not constant in $theta$ anymore.







integration trigonometry definite-integrals bessel-functions






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share|cite|improve this question








edited 5 hours ago







chickenNinja123

















asked 5 hours ago









chickenNinja123chickenNinja123

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9213












  • $begingroup$
    What's $I_0(v)$?
    $endgroup$
    – YiFan
    5 hours ago










  • $begingroup$
    @YiFan the modified Bessel function of the first kind.
    $endgroup$
    – chickenNinja123
    5 hours ago












  • $begingroup$
    Did you try using the fact that $color{blue}{e^{vcosthetacos t}cosh(vsinthetasin t) =frac{1}{2}left(e^{vcos(t-theta)} + e^{vcos(t+theta)}right)}$? (Obtained by using $cosh u = frac{1}{2}left( e^u + e^{-u}right)$ and the cosine addition formulas ($cos(Apm B) = cos A cos B mp sin A sin B$))
    $endgroup$
    – Minus One-Twelfth
    4 hours ago




















  • $begingroup$
    What's $I_0(v)$?
    $endgroup$
    – YiFan
    5 hours ago










  • $begingroup$
    @YiFan the modified Bessel function of the first kind.
    $endgroup$
    – chickenNinja123
    5 hours ago












  • $begingroup$
    Did you try using the fact that $color{blue}{e^{vcosthetacos t}cosh(vsinthetasin t) =frac{1}{2}left(e^{vcos(t-theta)} + e^{vcos(t+theta)}right)}$? (Obtained by using $cosh u = frac{1}{2}left( e^u + e^{-u}right)$ and the cosine addition formulas ($cos(Apm B) = cos A cos B mp sin A sin B$))
    $endgroup$
    – Minus One-Twelfth
    4 hours ago


















$begingroup$
What's $I_0(v)$?
$endgroup$
– YiFan
5 hours ago




$begingroup$
What's $I_0(v)$?
$endgroup$
– YiFan
5 hours ago












$begingroup$
@YiFan the modified Bessel function of the first kind.
$endgroup$
– chickenNinja123
5 hours ago






$begingroup$
@YiFan the modified Bessel function of the first kind.
$endgroup$
– chickenNinja123
5 hours ago














$begingroup$
Did you try using the fact that $color{blue}{e^{vcosthetacos t}cosh(vsinthetasin t) =frac{1}{2}left(e^{vcos(t-theta)} + e^{vcos(t+theta)}right)}$? (Obtained by using $cosh u = frac{1}{2}left( e^u + e^{-u}right)$ and the cosine addition formulas ($cos(Apm B) = cos A cos B mp sin A sin B$))
$endgroup$
– Minus One-Twelfth
4 hours ago






$begingroup$
Did you try using the fact that $color{blue}{e^{vcosthetacos t}cosh(vsinthetasin t) =frac{1}{2}left(e^{vcos(t-theta)} + e^{vcos(t+theta)}right)}$? (Obtained by using $cosh u = frac{1}{2}left( e^u + e^{-u}right)$ and the cosine addition formulas ($cos(Apm B) = cos A cos B mp sin A sin B$))
$endgroup$
– Minus One-Twelfth
4 hours ago












2 Answers
2






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oldest

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4












$begingroup$

For the main problem, a bit of algebra:
begin{align*}e^{vcosthetacos t}cosh(vsinthetasin t) &= e^{vcosthetacos t}left(e^{vsinthetasin t}+e^{-vsinthetasin t}right)\
&= frac12left(e^{vcosthetacos t+vsinthetasin t}+e^{vcosthetacos t-vsinthetasin t}right)\
&= frac12left(e^{vcos(theta-t)}+e^{vcos(theta+t)}right)end{align*}

Now we integrate that:
begin{align*}int_0^{pi}e^{vcosthetacos t}cosh(vsinthetasin t),dt &= frac12int_0^{pi}e^{vcos(theta-t)}+e^{vcos(theta+t)},dt\
&=frac12left(int_0^{pi}e^{vcos(theta+t)},dt+int_{-pi}^{0}e^{vcos(theta+s)},dsright)\
&=frac12int_{-pi}^{pi}e^{vcos(theta+t)},dt = frac12int_{-pi-theta}^{pi-theta}e^{vcos s},dsend{align*}

Flipping $theta-t$ to $theta+s$ gives us an integral over the other half of the period - and it's the same function, so we just write it as one integral. Then, in that final integral of $e^{vcos s}$ over one full period, it doesn't matter where that period is; from $-pi$ to $pi$ is the same as from $-pi-theta$ to $pi-theta$.



That leaves us with the Bessel function identity, that the average value of $e^{vcos t}$ over a full period is $I_0(cos v)$. For this, since Bessel functions are defined by a differential equation, we differentiate (under the integral sign):
begin{align*}I(v) &= frac1{2pi}int_0^{2pi}e^{vcostheta},dtheta\
I'(v) &= frac1{2pi}int_0^{2pi}costhetacdot e^{vcostheta},dtheta\
I''(v) &= frac1{2pi}int_0^{2pi}cos^2thetacdot e^{vcostheta},dtheta\
I'(v) &= frac1{2pi}left[sinthetacdot e^{vcostheta}right]_{theta=0}^{theta=2pi} +frac1{2pi}int_0^{2pi}sinthetacdot vsinthetacdot e^{vcostheta},dtheta\
I'(v) &= frac{v}{2pi}int_0^{2pi}sin^2thetacdot e^{vcostheta},dthetaend{align*}

The first three lines are $I$ and its derivatives, calculated the obvious way. Then, in the next two, we apply integration by parts to transform the $I'$ integral into a form that works better with the others. Then, from $cos^2+sin^2=1$, we get $vI''(v)+I'(v)-vI(v)=0$, the modified Bessel equation of order zero. Together with the initial condition $I(0)=1$ (since the average value of $1$ is $1$) and $I'(0)=0$, this gives that $I(v)=I_0(v)$. Done.



A brief note on the bonus question: we can apply the same identities, but we run into trouble when we try to fold over and transform the $e^{vcos(theta-t)}$ term into an integral over $[-pi,0]$. The way the $t$ factor transforms, we end up with
$$frac12int_{-pi}^{pi}|t|cdot e^{vcos(theta+t)},dt$$
Multiplying by a triangle wave isn't going to come out cleanly. I might look at Fourier series next, but not in this answer.






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    2












    $begingroup$

    Note that
    $$begin{align*}
    I_theta &= frac14int_0^{2pi}e^{vcosthetacos t}left(e^{vsinthetasin t}+e^{-vsinthetasin t}right) mathrm dt\&=frac14int_0^{2pi}e^{vcos(t-theta)} mathrm dt+frac14int_0^{2pi}e^{vcos(t+theta)} mathrm dt.
    end{align*}$$
    Because $tmapsto e^{vcos t}$ is $2pi$-periodic, we have
    $$
    int_0^{2pi}e^{vcos(t-theta)} mathrm dt=int_0^{2pi}e^{vcos(t+theta)} mathrm dt=int_0^{2pi}e^{vcos t} mathrm dt
    $$
    so it follows that
    $$
    I_theta = frac 12int_0^{2pi}e^{vcos t} mathrm dt =int_0^pi e^{vcos t} mathrm dt.
    $$






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      2 Answers
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      2 Answers
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      active

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      active

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      active

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      4












      $begingroup$

      For the main problem, a bit of algebra:
      begin{align*}e^{vcosthetacos t}cosh(vsinthetasin t) &= e^{vcosthetacos t}left(e^{vsinthetasin t}+e^{-vsinthetasin t}right)\
      &= frac12left(e^{vcosthetacos t+vsinthetasin t}+e^{vcosthetacos t-vsinthetasin t}right)\
      &= frac12left(e^{vcos(theta-t)}+e^{vcos(theta+t)}right)end{align*}

      Now we integrate that:
      begin{align*}int_0^{pi}e^{vcosthetacos t}cosh(vsinthetasin t),dt &= frac12int_0^{pi}e^{vcos(theta-t)}+e^{vcos(theta+t)},dt\
      &=frac12left(int_0^{pi}e^{vcos(theta+t)},dt+int_{-pi}^{0}e^{vcos(theta+s)},dsright)\
      &=frac12int_{-pi}^{pi}e^{vcos(theta+t)},dt = frac12int_{-pi-theta}^{pi-theta}e^{vcos s},dsend{align*}

      Flipping $theta-t$ to $theta+s$ gives us an integral over the other half of the period - and it's the same function, so we just write it as one integral. Then, in that final integral of $e^{vcos s}$ over one full period, it doesn't matter where that period is; from $-pi$ to $pi$ is the same as from $-pi-theta$ to $pi-theta$.



      That leaves us with the Bessel function identity, that the average value of $e^{vcos t}$ over a full period is $I_0(cos v)$. For this, since Bessel functions are defined by a differential equation, we differentiate (under the integral sign):
      begin{align*}I(v) &= frac1{2pi}int_0^{2pi}e^{vcostheta},dtheta\
      I'(v) &= frac1{2pi}int_0^{2pi}costhetacdot e^{vcostheta},dtheta\
      I''(v) &= frac1{2pi}int_0^{2pi}cos^2thetacdot e^{vcostheta},dtheta\
      I'(v) &= frac1{2pi}left[sinthetacdot e^{vcostheta}right]_{theta=0}^{theta=2pi} +frac1{2pi}int_0^{2pi}sinthetacdot vsinthetacdot e^{vcostheta},dtheta\
      I'(v) &= frac{v}{2pi}int_0^{2pi}sin^2thetacdot e^{vcostheta},dthetaend{align*}

      The first three lines are $I$ and its derivatives, calculated the obvious way. Then, in the next two, we apply integration by parts to transform the $I'$ integral into a form that works better with the others. Then, from $cos^2+sin^2=1$, we get $vI''(v)+I'(v)-vI(v)=0$, the modified Bessel equation of order zero. Together with the initial condition $I(0)=1$ (since the average value of $1$ is $1$) and $I'(0)=0$, this gives that $I(v)=I_0(v)$. Done.



      A brief note on the bonus question: we can apply the same identities, but we run into trouble when we try to fold over and transform the $e^{vcos(theta-t)}$ term into an integral over $[-pi,0]$. The way the $t$ factor transforms, we end up with
      $$frac12int_{-pi}^{pi}|t|cdot e^{vcos(theta+t)},dt$$
      Multiplying by a triangle wave isn't going to come out cleanly. I might look at Fourier series next, but not in this answer.






      share|cite|improve this answer









      $endgroup$


















        4












        $begingroup$

        For the main problem, a bit of algebra:
        begin{align*}e^{vcosthetacos t}cosh(vsinthetasin t) &= e^{vcosthetacos t}left(e^{vsinthetasin t}+e^{-vsinthetasin t}right)\
        &= frac12left(e^{vcosthetacos t+vsinthetasin t}+e^{vcosthetacos t-vsinthetasin t}right)\
        &= frac12left(e^{vcos(theta-t)}+e^{vcos(theta+t)}right)end{align*}

        Now we integrate that:
        begin{align*}int_0^{pi}e^{vcosthetacos t}cosh(vsinthetasin t),dt &= frac12int_0^{pi}e^{vcos(theta-t)}+e^{vcos(theta+t)},dt\
        &=frac12left(int_0^{pi}e^{vcos(theta+t)},dt+int_{-pi}^{0}e^{vcos(theta+s)},dsright)\
        &=frac12int_{-pi}^{pi}e^{vcos(theta+t)},dt = frac12int_{-pi-theta}^{pi-theta}e^{vcos s},dsend{align*}

        Flipping $theta-t$ to $theta+s$ gives us an integral over the other half of the period - and it's the same function, so we just write it as one integral. Then, in that final integral of $e^{vcos s}$ over one full period, it doesn't matter where that period is; from $-pi$ to $pi$ is the same as from $-pi-theta$ to $pi-theta$.



        That leaves us with the Bessel function identity, that the average value of $e^{vcos t}$ over a full period is $I_0(cos v)$. For this, since Bessel functions are defined by a differential equation, we differentiate (under the integral sign):
        begin{align*}I(v) &= frac1{2pi}int_0^{2pi}e^{vcostheta},dtheta\
        I'(v) &= frac1{2pi}int_0^{2pi}costhetacdot e^{vcostheta},dtheta\
        I''(v) &= frac1{2pi}int_0^{2pi}cos^2thetacdot e^{vcostheta},dtheta\
        I'(v) &= frac1{2pi}left[sinthetacdot e^{vcostheta}right]_{theta=0}^{theta=2pi} +frac1{2pi}int_0^{2pi}sinthetacdot vsinthetacdot e^{vcostheta},dtheta\
        I'(v) &= frac{v}{2pi}int_0^{2pi}sin^2thetacdot e^{vcostheta},dthetaend{align*}

        The first three lines are $I$ and its derivatives, calculated the obvious way. Then, in the next two, we apply integration by parts to transform the $I'$ integral into a form that works better with the others. Then, from $cos^2+sin^2=1$, we get $vI''(v)+I'(v)-vI(v)=0$, the modified Bessel equation of order zero. Together with the initial condition $I(0)=1$ (since the average value of $1$ is $1$) and $I'(0)=0$, this gives that $I(v)=I_0(v)$. Done.



        A brief note on the bonus question: we can apply the same identities, but we run into trouble when we try to fold over and transform the $e^{vcos(theta-t)}$ term into an integral over $[-pi,0]$. The way the $t$ factor transforms, we end up with
        $$frac12int_{-pi}^{pi}|t|cdot e^{vcos(theta+t)},dt$$
        Multiplying by a triangle wave isn't going to come out cleanly. I might look at Fourier series next, but not in this answer.






        share|cite|improve this answer









        $endgroup$
















          4












          4








          4





          $begingroup$

          For the main problem, a bit of algebra:
          begin{align*}e^{vcosthetacos t}cosh(vsinthetasin t) &= e^{vcosthetacos t}left(e^{vsinthetasin t}+e^{-vsinthetasin t}right)\
          &= frac12left(e^{vcosthetacos t+vsinthetasin t}+e^{vcosthetacos t-vsinthetasin t}right)\
          &= frac12left(e^{vcos(theta-t)}+e^{vcos(theta+t)}right)end{align*}

          Now we integrate that:
          begin{align*}int_0^{pi}e^{vcosthetacos t}cosh(vsinthetasin t),dt &= frac12int_0^{pi}e^{vcos(theta-t)}+e^{vcos(theta+t)},dt\
          &=frac12left(int_0^{pi}e^{vcos(theta+t)},dt+int_{-pi}^{0}e^{vcos(theta+s)},dsright)\
          &=frac12int_{-pi}^{pi}e^{vcos(theta+t)},dt = frac12int_{-pi-theta}^{pi-theta}e^{vcos s},dsend{align*}

          Flipping $theta-t$ to $theta+s$ gives us an integral over the other half of the period - and it's the same function, so we just write it as one integral. Then, in that final integral of $e^{vcos s}$ over one full period, it doesn't matter where that period is; from $-pi$ to $pi$ is the same as from $-pi-theta$ to $pi-theta$.



          That leaves us with the Bessel function identity, that the average value of $e^{vcos t}$ over a full period is $I_0(cos v)$. For this, since Bessel functions are defined by a differential equation, we differentiate (under the integral sign):
          begin{align*}I(v) &= frac1{2pi}int_0^{2pi}e^{vcostheta},dtheta\
          I'(v) &= frac1{2pi}int_0^{2pi}costhetacdot e^{vcostheta},dtheta\
          I''(v) &= frac1{2pi}int_0^{2pi}cos^2thetacdot e^{vcostheta},dtheta\
          I'(v) &= frac1{2pi}left[sinthetacdot e^{vcostheta}right]_{theta=0}^{theta=2pi} +frac1{2pi}int_0^{2pi}sinthetacdot vsinthetacdot e^{vcostheta},dtheta\
          I'(v) &= frac{v}{2pi}int_0^{2pi}sin^2thetacdot e^{vcostheta},dthetaend{align*}

          The first three lines are $I$ and its derivatives, calculated the obvious way. Then, in the next two, we apply integration by parts to transform the $I'$ integral into a form that works better with the others. Then, from $cos^2+sin^2=1$, we get $vI''(v)+I'(v)-vI(v)=0$, the modified Bessel equation of order zero. Together with the initial condition $I(0)=1$ (since the average value of $1$ is $1$) and $I'(0)=0$, this gives that $I(v)=I_0(v)$. Done.



          A brief note on the bonus question: we can apply the same identities, but we run into trouble when we try to fold over and transform the $e^{vcos(theta-t)}$ term into an integral over $[-pi,0]$. The way the $t$ factor transforms, we end up with
          $$frac12int_{-pi}^{pi}|t|cdot e^{vcos(theta+t)},dt$$
          Multiplying by a triangle wave isn't going to come out cleanly. I might look at Fourier series next, but not in this answer.






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$



          For the main problem, a bit of algebra:
          begin{align*}e^{vcosthetacos t}cosh(vsinthetasin t) &= e^{vcosthetacos t}left(e^{vsinthetasin t}+e^{-vsinthetasin t}right)\
          &= frac12left(e^{vcosthetacos t+vsinthetasin t}+e^{vcosthetacos t-vsinthetasin t}right)\
          &= frac12left(e^{vcos(theta-t)}+e^{vcos(theta+t)}right)end{align*}

          Now we integrate that:
          begin{align*}int_0^{pi}e^{vcosthetacos t}cosh(vsinthetasin t),dt &= frac12int_0^{pi}e^{vcos(theta-t)}+e^{vcos(theta+t)},dt\
          &=frac12left(int_0^{pi}e^{vcos(theta+t)},dt+int_{-pi}^{0}e^{vcos(theta+s)},dsright)\
          &=frac12int_{-pi}^{pi}e^{vcos(theta+t)},dt = frac12int_{-pi-theta}^{pi-theta}e^{vcos s},dsend{align*}

          Flipping $theta-t$ to $theta+s$ gives us an integral over the other half of the period - and it's the same function, so we just write it as one integral. Then, in that final integral of $e^{vcos s}$ over one full period, it doesn't matter where that period is; from $-pi$ to $pi$ is the same as from $-pi-theta$ to $pi-theta$.



          That leaves us with the Bessel function identity, that the average value of $e^{vcos t}$ over a full period is $I_0(cos v)$. For this, since Bessel functions are defined by a differential equation, we differentiate (under the integral sign):
          begin{align*}I(v) &= frac1{2pi}int_0^{2pi}e^{vcostheta},dtheta\
          I'(v) &= frac1{2pi}int_0^{2pi}costhetacdot e^{vcostheta},dtheta\
          I''(v) &= frac1{2pi}int_0^{2pi}cos^2thetacdot e^{vcostheta},dtheta\
          I'(v) &= frac1{2pi}left[sinthetacdot e^{vcostheta}right]_{theta=0}^{theta=2pi} +frac1{2pi}int_0^{2pi}sinthetacdot vsinthetacdot e^{vcostheta},dtheta\
          I'(v) &= frac{v}{2pi}int_0^{2pi}sin^2thetacdot e^{vcostheta},dthetaend{align*}

          The first three lines are $I$ and its derivatives, calculated the obvious way. Then, in the next two, we apply integration by parts to transform the $I'$ integral into a form that works better with the others. Then, from $cos^2+sin^2=1$, we get $vI''(v)+I'(v)-vI(v)=0$, the modified Bessel equation of order zero. Together with the initial condition $I(0)=1$ (since the average value of $1$ is $1$) and $I'(0)=0$, this gives that $I(v)=I_0(v)$. Done.



          A brief note on the bonus question: we can apply the same identities, but we run into trouble when we try to fold over and transform the $e^{vcos(theta-t)}$ term into an integral over $[-pi,0]$. The way the $t$ factor transforms, we end up with
          $$frac12int_{-pi}^{pi}|t|cdot e^{vcos(theta+t)},dt$$
          Multiplying by a triangle wave isn't going to come out cleanly. I might look at Fourier series next, but not in this answer.







          share|cite|improve this answer












          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer










          answered 4 hours ago









          jmerryjmerry

          12.3k1628




          12.3k1628























              2












              $begingroup$

              Note that
              $$begin{align*}
              I_theta &= frac14int_0^{2pi}e^{vcosthetacos t}left(e^{vsinthetasin t}+e^{-vsinthetasin t}right) mathrm dt\&=frac14int_0^{2pi}e^{vcos(t-theta)} mathrm dt+frac14int_0^{2pi}e^{vcos(t+theta)} mathrm dt.
              end{align*}$$
              Because $tmapsto e^{vcos t}$ is $2pi$-periodic, we have
              $$
              int_0^{2pi}e^{vcos(t-theta)} mathrm dt=int_0^{2pi}e^{vcos(t+theta)} mathrm dt=int_0^{2pi}e^{vcos t} mathrm dt
              $$
              so it follows that
              $$
              I_theta = frac 12int_0^{2pi}e^{vcos t} mathrm dt =int_0^pi e^{vcos t} mathrm dt.
              $$






              share|cite|improve this answer









              $endgroup$


















                2












                $begingroup$

                Note that
                $$begin{align*}
                I_theta &= frac14int_0^{2pi}e^{vcosthetacos t}left(e^{vsinthetasin t}+e^{-vsinthetasin t}right) mathrm dt\&=frac14int_0^{2pi}e^{vcos(t-theta)} mathrm dt+frac14int_0^{2pi}e^{vcos(t+theta)} mathrm dt.
                end{align*}$$
                Because $tmapsto e^{vcos t}$ is $2pi$-periodic, we have
                $$
                int_0^{2pi}e^{vcos(t-theta)} mathrm dt=int_0^{2pi}e^{vcos(t+theta)} mathrm dt=int_0^{2pi}e^{vcos t} mathrm dt
                $$
                so it follows that
                $$
                I_theta = frac 12int_0^{2pi}e^{vcos t} mathrm dt =int_0^pi e^{vcos t} mathrm dt.
                $$






                share|cite|improve this answer









                $endgroup$
















                  2












                  2








                  2





                  $begingroup$

                  Note that
                  $$begin{align*}
                  I_theta &= frac14int_0^{2pi}e^{vcosthetacos t}left(e^{vsinthetasin t}+e^{-vsinthetasin t}right) mathrm dt\&=frac14int_0^{2pi}e^{vcos(t-theta)} mathrm dt+frac14int_0^{2pi}e^{vcos(t+theta)} mathrm dt.
                  end{align*}$$
                  Because $tmapsto e^{vcos t}$ is $2pi$-periodic, we have
                  $$
                  int_0^{2pi}e^{vcos(t-theta)} mathrm dt=int_0^{2pi}e^{vcos(t+theta)} mathrm dt=int_0^{2pi}e^{vcos t} mathrm dt
                  $$
                  so it follows that
                  $$
                  I_theta = frac 12int_0^{2pi}e^{vcos t} mathrm dt =int_0^pi e^{vcos t} mathrm dt.
                  $$






                  share|cite|improve this answer









                  $endgroup$



                  Note that
                  $$begin{align*}
                  I_theta &= frac14int_0^{2pi}e^{vcosthetacos t}left(e^{vsinthetasin t}+e^{-vsinthetasin t}right) mathrm dt\&=frac14int_0^{2pi}e^{vcos(t-theta)} mathrm dt+frac14int_0^{2pi}e^{vcos(t+theta)} mathrm dt.
                  end{align*}$$
                  Because $tmapsto e^{vcos t}$ is $2pi$-periodic, we have
                  $$
                  int_0^{2pi}e^{vcos(t-theta)} mathrm dt=int_0^{2pi}e^{vcos(t+theta)} mathrm dt=int_0^{2pi}e^{vcos t} mathrm dt
                  $$
                  so it follows that
                  $$
                  I_theta = frac 12int_0^{2pi}e^{vcos t} mathrm dt =int_0^pi e^{vcos t} mathrm dt.
                  $$







                  share|cite|improve this answer












                  share|cite|improve this answer



                  share|cite|improve this answer










                  answered 4 hours ago









                  SimonSimon

                  1294




                  1294






























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