“Would have not” vs. “would not have”
That would not have happened if John had completed his work.
That would have not happened if John had completed his work.
The former seems correct. The latter doesn't seem incorrect.
Are there any cases where one ought to use the latter instead of the former?
word-order negation conditionals
asked Jul 5 '14 at 18:36
HalHal
1,35931426
add a comment |
That would not have happened if John had completed his work.
That would have not happened if John had completed his work.
The former seems correct. The latter doesn't seem incorrect.
Are there any cases where one ought to use the latter instead of the former?
word-order negation conditionals
asked Jul 5 '14 at 18:36
HalHal
1,35931426
The second example is awkward and clumsy.
– Tristan r
Jul 5 '14 at 22:26
related: english.stackexchange.com/questions/23152/…
– Kit Z. Fox♦
Jul 7 '14 at 13:17
add a comment |
That would not have happened if John had completed his work.
That would have not happened if John had completed his work.
The former seems correct. The latter doesn't seem incorrect.
Are there any cases where one ought to use the latter instead of the former?
word-order negation conditionals
asked Jul 5 '14 at 18:36
HalHal
1,35931426
That would not have happened if John had completed his work.
That would have not happened if John had completed his work.
The former seems correct. The latter doesn't seem incorrect.
Are there any cases where one ought to use the latter instead of the former?
word-order negation conditionals
word-order negation conditionals
asked Jul 5 '14 at 18:36
HalHal
1,35931426
asked Jul 5 '14 at 18:36
HalHal
1,35931426
edited Jul 6 '14 at 0:24
Hal
asked Jul 5 '14 at 18:36
HalHal
1,35931426
asked Jul 5 '14 at 18:36
HalHal
1,35931426
asked Jul 5 '14 at 18:36
HalHal
1,35931426
1,35931426
The second example is awkward and clumsy.
– Tristan r
Jul 5 '14 at 22:26
related: english.stackexchange.com/questions/23152/…
– Kit Z. Fox♦
Jul 7 '14 at 13:17
add a comment |
The second example is awkward and clumsy.
– Tristan r
Jul 5 '14 at 22:26
related: english.stackexchange.com/questions/23152/…
– Kit Z. Fox♦
Jul 7 '14 at 13:17
The second example is awkward and clumsy.
– Tristan r
Jul 5 '14 at 22:26
The second example is awkward and clumsy.
– Tristan r
Jul 5 '14 at 22:26
related: english.stackexchange.com/questions/23152/…
– Kit Z. Fox♦
Jul 7 '14 at 13:17
related: english.stackexchange.com/questions/23152/…
– Kit Z. Fox♦
Jul 7 '14 at 13:17
add a comment |
4 Answers
4
active
oldest
votes
Well, in my opinion when we say "I would not like to know him" the word "not" makes the verb "to like" negative but when we say "I would like not to know him" the word "not" makes the verb "to know" negative. These are different situations.
answered Oct 24 '15 at 10:39
HilarioHilario
212
add a comment |
The latter seems very wrong to me. Putting the word "not" after "should have" may possibly be correct form in other languages, but seems to me to be incorrect in American English. Also, I'm no English professor; but I would question the use of a comma in that sentence.
answered Jul 5 '14 at 22:39
user83140user83140
574
add a comment |
I think the difference in these two sentences ( I would not like to know him & I would like not to know him ) is the quality the emphasizing on the meaning . 🙂
answered 3 mins ago
the seeker19the seeker19
1
New contributor
the seeker19 is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.
add a comment |
The latter seems ungrammatical.
Negation 'not' ought to be placed right after a modal verb. Of the second sentence, 'would' is a modal auxiliary verb. The verb 'have', in here, is conceived as a principal verb.
Let me bring the following example to your attention.
I drink tea.
The negative of this sentence would be; I do not drink tea. It is quite clear that the negation 'not' comes soon after the primary auxiliary verb 'do'.
On the contrary, the sentence 'I do drink not tea' is ungrammatical, and hence incorrect.
Therefore, according to my knowledge of English Grammar, the sentence, 'That would not have happened if John had completed his work.' is grammatical.
answered Jul 6 '14 at 16:11
Nisal Kevin KotinkaduwaNisal Kevin Kotinkaduwa
15828
Unfortunately, the example you give in reference to drinking tea is not apt. Would have not vs. would not have can have distinct meanings due to the imposition of a different modal verb than do. The verb would invokes types of hypotheticals in which case the two possibilities can be distinct (would not have vs. would have not).
– virmaior
Jul 6 '14 at 16:41
In my perspective, I solidly believe, you attention was too much drawn to my example. I wanted to emphasis the fact that the negation 'not' comes directly after any auxiliary verb; it could be all the modal verbs as well as all the primary auxiliary verbs. I am speaking of its grammar. The sentence itself could invoke different possibilities, but one could not change its grammar. If you could find me a perfective sentence where the negation has placed after a principal verb.
– Nisal Kevin Kotinkaduwa
Jul 6 '14 at 18:31
By 'perfective' I meant a sentence like 'He would have visited .......'. The negative of this sentence clearly is; He would not have visited, NOT He would have not visited.
– Nisal Kevin Kotinkaduwa
Jul 6 '14 at 18:32
No, I'm not being distracted by the example. Whoever taught you the rule is mistaken. "I would not like to know him" and "I would like not to know him" are both valid sentences with different meanings.
– virmaior
Jul 6 '14 at 22:49
add a comment |
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4 Answers
4
active
oldest
votes
4 Answers
4
active
oldest
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active
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votes
Well, in my opinion when we say "I would not like to know him" the word "not" makes the verb "to like" negative but when we say "I would like not to know him" the word "not" makes the verb "to know" negative. These are different situations.
answered Oct 24 '15 at 10:39
HilarioHilario
212
add a comment |
Well, in my opinion when we say "I would not like to know him" the word "not" makes the verb "to like" negative but when we say "I would like not to know him" the word "not" makes the verb "to know" negative. These are different situations.
answered Oct 24 '15 at 10:39
HilarioHilario
212
add a comment |
Well, in my opinion when we say "I would not like to know him" the word "not" makes the verb "to like" negative but when we say "I would like not to know him" the word "not" makes the verb "to know" negative. These are different situations.
answered Oct 24 '15 at 10:39
HilarioHilario
212
Well, in my opinion when we say "I would not like to know him" the word "not" makes the verb "to like" negative but when we say "I would like not to know him" the word "not" makes the verb "to know" negative. These are different situations.
answered Oct 24 '15 at 10:39
HilarioHilario
212
answered Oct 24 '15 at 10:39
HilarioHilario
212
answered Oct 24 '15 at 10:39
HilarioHilario
212
answered Oct 24 '15 at 10:39
HilarioHilario
212
212
add a comment |
add a comment |
The latter seems very wrong to me. Putting the word "not" after "should have" may possibly be correct form in other languages, but seems to me to be incorrect in American English. Also, I'm no English professor; but I would question the use of a comma in that sentence.
answered Jul 5 '14 at 22:39
user83140user83140
574
add a comment |
The latter seems very wrong to me. Putting the word "not" after "should have" may possibly be correct form in other languages, but seems to me to be incorrect in American English. Also, I'm no English professor; but I would question the use of a comma in that sentence.
answered Jul 5 '14 at 22:39
user83140user83140
574
add a comment |
The latter seems very wrong to me. Putting the word "not" after "should have" may possibly be correct form in other languages, but seems to me to be incorrect in American English. Also, I'm no English professor; but I would question the use of a comma in that sentence.
answered Jul 5 '14 at 22:39
user83140user83140
574
The latter seems very wrong to me. Putting the word "not" after "should have" may possibly be correct form in other languages, but seems to me to be incorrect in American English. Also, I'm no English professor; but I would question the use of a comma in that sentence.
answered Jul 5 '14 at 22:39
user83140user83140
574
answered Jul 5 '14 at 22:39
user83140user83140
574
answered Jul 5 '14 at 22:39
user83140user83140
574
answered Jul 5 '14 at 22:39
user83140user83140
574
574
add a comment |
add a comment |
I think the difference in these two sentences ( I would not like to know him & I would like not to know him ) is the quality the emphasizing on the meaning . 🙂
answered 3 mins ago
the seeker19the seeker19
1
New contributor
the seeker19 is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.
add a comment |
I think the difference in these two sentences ( I would not like to know him & I would like not to know him ) is the quality the emphasizing on the meaning . 🙂
answered 3 mins ago
the seeker19the seeker19
1
New contributor
the seeker19 is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.
add a comment |
I think the difference in these two sentences ( I would not like to know him & I would like not to know him ) is the quality the emphasizing on the meaning . 🙂
answered 3 mins ago
the seeker19the seeker19
1
New contributor
the seeker19 is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.
I think the difference in these two sentences ( I would not like to know him & I would like not to know him ) is the quality the emphasizing on the meaning . 🙂
answered 3 mins ago
the seeker19the seeker19
1
New contributor
the seeker19 is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.
answered 3 mins ago
the seeker19the seeker19
1
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Check out our Code of Conduct.
answered 3 mins ago
the seeker19the seeker19
1
answered 3 mins ago
the seeker19the seeker19
1
1
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New contributor
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add a comment |
add a comment |
The latter seems ungrammatical.
Negation 'not' ought to be placed right after a modal verb. Of the second sentence, 'would' is a modal auxiliary verb. The verb 'have', in here, is conceived as a principal verb.
Let me bring the following example to your attention.
I drink tea.
The negative of this sentence would be; I do not drink tea. It is quite clear that the negation 'not' comes soon after the primary auxiliary verb 'do'.
On the contrary, the sentence 'I do drink not tea' is ungrammatical, and hence incorrect.
Therefore, according to my knowledge of English Grammar, the sentence, 'That would not have happened if John had completed his work.' is grammatical.
answered Jul 6 '14 at 16:11
Nisal Kevin KotinkaduwaNisal Kevin Kotinkaduwa
15828
Unfortunately, the example you give in reference to drinking tea is not apt. Would have not vs. would not have can have distinct meanings due to the imposition of a different modal verb than do. The verb would invokes types of hypotheticals in which case the two possibilities can be distinct (would not have vs. would have not).
– virmaior
Jul 6 '14 at 16:41
In my perspective, I solidly believe, you attention was too much drawn to my example. I wanted to emphasis the fact that the negation 'not' comes directly after any auxiliary verb; it could be all the modal verbs as well as all the primary auxiliary verbs. I am speaking of its grammar. The sentence itself could invoke different possibilities, but one could not change its grammar. If you could find me a perfective sentence where the negation has placed after a principal verb.
– Nisal Kevin Kotinkaduwa
Jul 6 '14 at 18:31
By 'perfective' I meant a sentence like 'He would have visited .......'. The negative of this sentence clearly is; He would not have visited, NOT He would have not visited.
– Nisal Kevin Kotinkaduwa
Jul 6 '14 at 18:32
No, I'm not being distracted by the example. Whoever taught you the rule is mistaken. "I would not like to know him" and "I would like not to know him" are both valid sentences with different meanings.
– virmaior
Jul 6 '14 at 22:49
add a comment |
The latter seems ungrammatical.
Negation 'not' ought to be placed right after a modal verb. Of the second sentence, 'would' is a modal auxiliary verb. The verb 'have', in here, is conceived as a principal verb.
Let me bring the following example to your attention.
I drink tea.
The negative of this sentence would be; I do not drink tea. It is quite clear that the negation 'not' comes soon after the primary auxiliary verb 'do'.
On the contrary, the sentence 'I do drink not tea' is ungrammatical, and hence incorrect.
Therefore, according to my knowledge of English Grammar, the sentence, 'That would not have happened if John had completed his work.' is grammatical.
answered Jul 6 '14 at 16:11
Nisal Kevin KotinkaduwaNisal Kevin Kotinkaduwa
15828
Unfortunately, the example you give in reference to drinking tea is not apt. Would have not vs. would not have can have distinct meanings due to the imposition of a different modal verb than do. The verb would invokes types of hypotheticals in which case the two possibilities can be distinct (would not have vs. would have not).
– virmaior
Jul 6 '14 at 16:41
In my perspective, I solidly believe, you attention was too much drawn to my example. I wanted to emphasis the fact that the negation 'not' comes directly after any auxiliary verb; it could be all the modal verbs as well as all the primary auxiliary verbs. I am speaking of its grammar. The sentence itself could invoke different possibilities, but one could not change its grammar. If you could find me a perfective sentence where the negation has placed after a principal verb.
– Nisal Kevin Kotinkaduwa
Jul 6 '14 at 18:31
By 'perfective' I meant a sentence like 'He would have visited .......'. The negative of this sentence clearly is; He would not have visited, NOT He would have not visited.
– Nisal Kevin Kotinkaduwa
Jul 6 '14 at 18:32
No, I'm not being distracted by the example. Whoever taught you the rule is mistaken. "I would not like to know him" and "I would like not to know him" are both valid sentences with different meanings.
– virmaior
Jul 6 '14 at 22:49
add a comment |
The latter seems ungrammatical.
Negation 'not' ought to be placed right after a modal verb. Of the second sentence, 'would' is a modal auxiliary verb. The verb 'have', in here, is conceived as a principal verb.
Let me bring the following example to your attention.
I drink tea.
The negative of this sentence would be; I do not drink tea. It is quite clear that the negation 'not' comes soon after the primary auxiliary verb 'do'.
On the contrary, the sentence 'I do drink not tea' is ungrammatical, and hence incorrect.
Therefore, according to my knowledge of English Grammar, the sentence, 'That would not have happened if John had completed his work.' is grammatical.
answered Jul 6 '14 at 16:11
Nisal Kevin KotinkaduwaNisal Kevin Kotinkaduwa
15828
The latter seems ungrammatical.
Negation 'not' ought to be placed right after a modal verb. Of the second sentence, 'would' is a modal auxiliary verb. The verb 'have', in here, is conceived as a principal verb.
Let me bring the following example to your attention.
I drink tea.
The negative of this sentence would be; I do not drink tea. It is quite clear that the negation 'not' comes soon after the primary auxiliary verb 'do'.
On the contrary, the sentence 'I do drink not tea' is ungrammatical, and hence incorrect.
Therefore, according to my knowledge of English Grammar, the sentence, 'That would not have happened if John had completed his work.' is grammatical.
answered Jul 6 '14 at 16:11
Nisal Kevin KotinkaduwaNisal Kevin Kotinkaduwa
15828
answered Jul 6 '14 at 16:11
Nisal Kevin KotinkaduwaNisal Kevin Kotinkaduwa
15828
answered Jul 6 '14 at 16:11
Nisal Kevin KotinkaduwaNisal Kevin Kotinkaduwa
15828
answered Jul 6 '14 at 16:11
Nisal Kevin KotinkaduwaNisal Kevin Kotinkaduwa
15828
15828
Unfortunately, the example you give in reference to drinking tea is not apt. Would have not vs. would not have can have distinct meanings due to the imposition of a different modal verb than do. The verb would invokes types of hypotheticals in which case the two possibilities can be distinct (would not have vs. would have not).
– virmaior
Jul 6 '14 at 16:41
In my perspective, I solidly believe, you attention was too much drawn to my example. I wanted to emphasis the fact that the negation 'not' comes directly after any auxiliary verb; it could be all the modal verbs as well as all the primary auxiliary verbs. I am speaking of its grammar. The sentence itself could invoke different possibilities, but one could not change its grammar. If you could find me a perfective sentence where the negation has placed after a principal verb.
– Nisal Kevin Kotinkaduwa
Jul 6 '14 at 18:31
By 'perfective' I meant a sentence like 'He would have visited .......'. The negative of this sentence clearly is; He would not have visited, NOT He would have not visited.
– Nisal Kevin Kotinkaduwa
Jul 6 '14 at 18:32
No, I'm not being distracted by the example. Whoever taught you the rule is mistaken. "I would not like to know him" and "I would like not to know him" are both valid sentences with different meanings.
– virmaior
Jul 6 '14 at 22:49
add a comment |
Unfortunately, the example you give in reference to drinking tea is not apt. Would have not vs. would not have can have distinct meanings due to the imposition of a different modal verb than do. The verb would invokes types of hypotheticals in which case the two possibilities can be distinct (would not have vs. would have not).
– virmaior
Jul 6 '14 at 16:41
In my perspective, I solidly believe, you attention was too much drawn to my example. I wanted to emphasis the fact that the negation 'not' comes directly after any auxiliary verb; it could be all the modal verbs as well as all the primary auxiliary verbs. I am speaking of its grammar. The sentence itself could invoke different possibilities, but one could not change its grammar. If you could find me a perfective sentence where the negation has placed after a principal verb.
– Nisal Kevin Kotinkaduwa
Jul 6 '14 at 18:31
By 'perfective' I meant a sentence like 'He would have visited .......'. The negative of this sentence clearly is; He would not have visited, NOT He would have not visited.
– Nisal Kevin Kotinkaduwa
Jul 6 '14 at 18:32
No, I'm not being distracted by the example. Whoever taught you the rule is mistaken. "I would not like to know him" and "I would like not to know him" are both valid sentences with different meanings.
– virmaior
Jul 6 '14 at 22:49
Unfortunately, the example you give in reference to drinking tea is not apt. Would have not vs. would not have can have distinct meanings due to the imposition of a different modal verb than do. The verb would invokes types of hypotheticals in which case the two possibilities can be distinct (would not have vs. would have not).
– virmaior
Jul 6 '14 at 16:41
Unfortunately, the example you give in reference to drinking tea is not apt. Would have not vs. would not have can have distinct meanings due to the imposition of a different modal verb than do. The verb would invokes types of hypotheticals in which case the two possibilities can be distinct (would not have vs. would have not).
– virmaior
Jul 6 '14 at 16:41
In my perspective, I solidly believe, you attention was too much drawn to my example. I wanted to emphasis the fact that the negation 'not' comes directly after any auxiliary verb; it could be all the modal verbs as well as all the primary auxiliary verbs. I am speaking of its grammar. The sentence itself could invoke different possibilities, but one could not change its grammar. If you could find me a perfective sentence where the negation has placed after a principal verb.
– Nisal Kevin Kotinkaduwa
Jul 6 '14 at 18:31
In my perspective, I solidly believe, you attention was too much drawn to my example. I wanted to emphasis the fact that the negation 'not' comes directly after any auxiliary verb; it could be all the modal verbs as well as all the primary auxiliary verbs. I am speaking of its grammar. The sentence itself could invoke different possibilities, but one could not change its grammar. If you could find me a perfective sentence where the negation has placed after a principal verb.
– Nisal Kevin Kotinkaduwa
Jul 6 '14 at 18:31
By 'perfective' I meant a sentence like 'He would have visited .......'. The negative of this sentence clearly is; He would not have visited, NOT He would have not visited.
– Nisal Kevin Kotinkaduwa
Jul 6 '14 at 18:32
By 'perfective' I meant a sentence like 'He would have visited .......'. The negative of this sentence clearly is; He would not have visited, NOT He would have not visited.
– Nisal Kevin Kotinkaduwa
Jul 6 '14 at 18:32
No, I'm not being distracted by the example. Whoever taught you the rule is mistaken. "I would not like to know him" and "I would like not to know him" are both valid sentences with different meanings.
– virmaior
Jul 6 '14 at 22:49
No, I'm not being distracted by the example. Whoever taught you the rule is mistaken. "I would not like to know him" and "I would like not to know him" are both valid sentences with different meanings.
– virmaior
Jul 6 '14 at 22:49
add a comment |
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The second example is awkward and clumsy.
– Tristan r
Jul 5 '14 at 22:26
related: english.stackexchange.com/questions/23152/…
– Kit Z. Fox♦
Jul 7 '14 at 13:17