Been versus gone
What is the correct rephrasing for this sentence?
I went to the party and now I regret it.
"I should not have gone to the party " or
"I shouldn't have been to the party"
Cheers!
grammar differences
asked 12 hours ago
IsabelIsabel
132
add a comment |
What is the correct rephrasing for this sentence?
I went to the party and now I regret it.
"I should not have gone to the party " or
"I shouldn't have been to the party"
Cheers!
grammar differences
asked 12 hours ago
IsabelIsabel
132
Both seem grammatical to me. But it seems you can make other tenses of "I have gone to the party": namely "I went to the party, I go to the party". But you cannot make other tenses of "I have been to the party": like "*I was to the party, *I am to the party". Why?
– GEdgar
11 hours ago
2
"I've been to" is often used to refer to places rather than events. For example, "I've been to France" or "I've been to John's house". For this reason I would probably prefer "gone". However, I don't know if this a real distinction in meaning (and if so, whether this is strict) or just my own preference.
– Tim Foster
11 hours ago
add a comment |
What is the correct rephrasing for this sentence?
I went to the party and now I regret it.
"I should not have gone to the party " or
"I shouldn't have been to the party"
Cheers!
grammar differences
asked 12 hours ago
IsabelIsabel
132
What is the correct rephrasing for this sentence?
I went to the party and now I regret it.
"I should not have gone to the party " or
"I shouldn't have been to the party"
Cheers!
grammar differences
grammar differences
asked 12 hours ago
IsabelIsabel
132
asked 12 hours ago
IsabelIsabel
132
asked 12 hours ago
IsabelIsabel
132
asked 12 hours ago
IsabelIsabel
132
asked 12 hours ago
IsabelIsabel
132
132
Both seem grammatical to me. But it seems you can make other tenses of "I have gone to the party": namely "I went to the party, I go to the party". But you cannot make other tenses of "I have been to the party": like "*I was to the party, *I am to the party". Why?
– GEdgar
11 hours ago
2
"I've been to" is often used to refer to places rather than events. For example, "I've been to France" or "I've been to John's house". For this reason I would probably prefer "gone". However, I don't know if this a real distinction in meaning (and if so, whether this is strict) or just my own preference.
– Tim Foster
11 hours ago
add a comment |
Both seem grammatical to me. But it seems you can make other tenses of "I have gone to the party": namely "I went to the party, I go to the party". But you cannot make other tenses of "I have been to the party": like "*I was to the party, *I am to the party". Why?
– GEdgar
11 hours ago
2
"I've been to" is often used to refer to places rather than events. For example, "I've been to France" or "I've been to John's house". For this reason I would probably prefer "gone". However, I don't know if this a real distinction in meaning (and if so, whether this is strict) or just my own preference.
– Tim Foster
11 hours ago
Both seem grammatical to me. But it seems you can make other tenses of "I have gone to the party": namely "I went to the party, I go to the party". But you cannot make other tenses of "I have been to the party": like "*I was to the party, *I am to the party". Why?
– GEdgar
11 hours ago
Both seem grammatical to me. But it seems you can make other tenses of "I have gone to the party": namely "I went to the party, I go to the party". But you cannot make other tenses of "I have been to the party": like "*I was to the party, *I am to the party". Why?
– GEdgar
11 hours ago
2
2
"I've been to" is often used to refer to places rather than events. For example, "I've been to France" or "I've been to John's house". For this reason I would probably prefer "gone". However, I don't know if this a real distinction in meaning (and if so, whether this is strict) or just my own preference.
– Tim Foster
11 hours ago
"I've been to" is often used to refer to places rather than events. For example, "I've been to France" or "I've been to John's house". For this reason I would probably prefer "gone". However, I don't know if this a real distinction in meaning (and if so, whether this is strict) or just my own preference.
– Tim Foster
11 hours ago
add a comment |
2 Answers
2
active
oldest
votes
Either one is correct for the sentence. To me, "been to" seems more formal, or perhaps more British than American.
But if it were "gone to" or "been at", one can lean more than the other towards specific senses. If something bad happened at the party, if it was a wrong time, wrong place sort of thing, then, perhaps, you "should not have been" there. If you should have skipped the party because the act of going was a bad idea, then you, slightly more likely, "should not have gone".
answered 4 hours ago
PvtBuddiePvtBuddie
1024
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PvtBuddie is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
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To be true, "have been" and "have gone" mean the same. "Be" as an intransitive verb means "be here", "go to and return from" or similar. The Wiktionary gives this example :
- The post man has been to-day, but my tickets have still not yet come. I have been to Spain many times. Moscow, huh? I've never been. But it sounds fascinating.
Mark the use of " to be " verb in the sentence. Your alternative suggestions are correct and perfectly grammatical.
answered 11 hours ago
Barid Baran AcharyaBarid Baran Acharya
1,955613
add a comment |
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2 Answers
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2 Answers
2
active
oldest
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Either one is correct for the sentence. To me, "been to" seems more formal, or perhaps more British than American.
But if it were "gone to" or "been at", one can lean more than the other towards specific senses. If something bad happened at the party, if it was a wrong time, wrong place sort of thing, then, perhaps, you "should not have been" there. If you should have skipped the party because the act of going was a bad idea, then you, slightly more likely, "should not have gone".
answered 4 hours ago
PvtBuddiePvtBuddie
1024
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PvtBuddie is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
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add a comment |
Either one is correct for the sentence. To me, "been to" seems more formal, or perhaps more British than American.
But if it were "gone to" or "been at", one can lean more than the other towards specific senses. If something bad happened at the party, if it was a wrong time, wrong place sort of thing, then, perhaps, you "should not have been" there. If you should have skipped the party because the act of going was a bad idea, then you, slightly more likely, "should not have gone".
answered 4 hours ago
PvtBuddiePvtBuddie
1024
New contributor
PvtBuddie is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.
add a comment |
Either one is correct for the sentence. To me, "been to" seems more formal, or perhaps more British than American.
But if it were "gone to" or "been at", one can lean more than the other towards specific senses. If something bad happened at the party, if it was a wrong time, wrong place sort of thing, then, perhaps, you "should not have been" there. If you should have skipped the party because the act of going was a bad idea, then you, slightly more likely, "should not have gone".
answered 4 hours ago
PvtBuddiePvtBuddie
1024
New contributor
PvtBuddie is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.
Either one is correct for the sentence. To me, "been to" seems more formal, or perhaps more British than American.
But if it were "gone to" or "been at", one can lean more than the other towards specific senses. If something bad happened at the party, if it was a wrong time, wrong place sort of thing, then, perhaps, you "should not have been" there. If you should have skipped the party because the act of going was a bad idea, then you, slightly more likely, "should not have gone".
answered 4 hours ago
PvtBuddiePvtBuddie
1024
New contributor
PvtBuddie is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.
answered 4 hours ago
PvtBuddiePvtBuddie
1024
New contributor
PvtBuddie is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.
answered 4 hours ago
PvtBuddiePvtBuddie
1024
answered 4 hours ago
PvtBuddiePvtBuddie
1024
1024
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PvtBuddie is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
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New contributor
PvtBuddie is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.
PvtBuddie is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.
add a comment |
add a comment |
To be true, "have been" and "have gone" mean the same. "Be" as an intransitive verb means "be here", "go to and return from" or similar. The Wiktionary gives this example :
- The post man has been to-day, but my tickets have still not yet come. I have been to Spain many times. Moscow, huh? I've never been. But it sounds fascinating.
Mark the use of " to be " verb in the sentence. Your alternative suggestions are correct and perfectly grammatical.
answered 11 hours ago
Barid Baran AcharyaBarid Baran Acharya
1,955613
add a comment |
To be true, "have been" and "have gone" mean the same. "Be" as an intransitive verb means "be here", "go to and return from" or similar. The Wiktionary gives this example :
- The post man has been to-day, but my tickets have still not yet come. I have been to Spain many times. Moscow, huh? I've never been. But it sounds fascinating.
Mark the use of " to be " verb in the sentence. Your alternative suggestions are correct and perfectly grammatical.
answered 11 hours ago
Barid Baran AcharyaBarid Baran Acharya
1,955613
add a comment |
To be true, "have been" and "have gone" mean the same. "Be" as an intransitive verb means "be here", "go to and return from" or similar. The Wiktionary gives this example :
- The post man has been to-day, but my tickets have still not yet come. I have been to Spain many times. Moscow, huh? I've never been. But it sounds fascinating.
Mark the use of " to be " verb in the sentence. Your alternative suggestions are correct and perfectly grammatical.
answered 11 hours ago
Barid Baran AcharyaBarid Baran Acharya
1,955613
To be true, "have been" and "have gone" mean the same. "Be" as an intransitive verb means "be here", "go to and return from" or similar. The Wiktionary gives this example :
- The post man has been to-day, but my tickets have still not yet come. I have been to Spain many times. Moscow, huh? I've never been. But it sounds fascinating.
Mark the use of " to be " verb in the sentence. Your alternative suggestions are correct and perfectly grammatical.
answered 11 hours ago
Barid Baran AcharyaBarid Baran Acharya
1,955613
answered 11 hours ago
Barid Baran AcharyaBarid Baran Acharya
1,955613
answered 11 hours ago
Barid Baran AcharyaBarid Baran Acharya
1,955613
answered 11 hours ago
Barid Baran AcharyaBarid Baran Acharya
1,955613
1,955613
add a comment |
add a comment |
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Both seem grammatical to me. But it seems you can make other tenses of "I have gone to the party": namely "I went to the party, I go to the party". But you cannot make other tenses of "I have been to the party": like "*I was to the party, *I am to the party". Why?
– GEdgar
11 hours ago
2
"I've been to" is often used to refer to places rather than events. For example, "I've been to France" or "I've been to John's house". For this reason I would probably prefer "gone". However, I don't know if this a real distinction in meaning (and if so, whether this is strict) or just my own preference.
– Tim Foster
11 hours ago