Eigenvalues and Eigenvectors of Sum of Symmetric Matrix
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Question:
Let A = begin{bmatrix} 1 & 1 \ 1 & 1 \ end{bmatrix}
Find all eigenvalues and eigenvectors of the martrix:
$$sum_{n=1}^{100} A^n = A^{100} +A^{99} +...+A^2+A$$
I know that the eigenvectors of A are begin{bmatrix} 1 \ 1 end{bmatrix} and begin{bmatrix} 1 \ -1 end{bmatrix}
But I do not see any sort of correlation with the sum term and A's eigenvectors.
linear-algebra eigenvalues-eigenvectors symmetric-matrices
New contributor
add a comment |
up vote
5
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favorite
Question:
Let A = begin{bmatrix} 1 & 1 \ 1 & 1 \ end{bmatrix}
Find all eigenvalues and eigenvectors of the martrix:
$$sum_{n=1}^{100} A^n = A^{100} +A^{99} +...+A^2+A$$
I know that the eigenvectors of A are begin{bmatrix} 1 \ 1 end{bmatrix} and begin{bmatrix} 1 \ -1 end{bmatrix}
But I do not see any sort of correlation with the sum term and A's eigenvectors.
linear-algebra eigenvalues-eigenvectors symmetric-matrices
New contributor
3
Try evaluating $(sum_{n=1}^{100} A^n) begin{bmatrix} 1 \ 1 end{bmatrix}$ and do the same with the other eigenvector. What happens?
– Giuseppe Negro
Dec 11 at 19:24
add a comment |
up vote
5
down vote
favorite
up vote
5
down vote
favorite
Question:
Let A = begin{bmatrix} 1 & 1 \ 1 & 1 \ end{bmatrix}
Find all eigenvalues and eigenvectors of the martrix:
$$sum_{n=1}^{100} A^n = A^{100} +A^{99} +...+A^2+A$$
I know that the eigenvectors of A are begin{bmatrix} 1 \ 1 end{bmatrix} and begin{bmatrix} 1 \ -1 end{bmatrix}
But I do not see any sort of correlation with the sum term and A's eigenvectors.
linear-algebra eigenvalues-eigenvectors symmetric-matrices
New contributor
Question:
Let A = begin{bmatrix} 1 & 1 \ 1 & 1 \ end{bmatrix}
Find all eigenvalues and eigenvectors of the martrix:
$$sum_{n=1}^{100} A^n = A^{100} +A^{99} +...+A^2+A$$
I know that the eigenvectors of A are begin{bmatrix} 1 \ 1 end{bmatrix} and begin{bmatrix} 1 \ -1 end{bmatrix}
But I do not see any sort of correlation with the sum term and A's eigenvectors.
linear-algebra eigenvalues-eigenvectors symmetric-matrices
linear-algebra eigenvalues-eigenvectors symmetric-matrices
New contributor
New contributor
New contributor
asked Dec 11 at 19:13
mhall14
283
283
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3
Try evaluating $(sum_{n=1}^{100} A^n) begin{bmatrix} 1 \ 1 end{bmatrix}$ and do the same with the other eigenvector. What happens?
– Giuseppe Negro
Dec 11 at 19:24
add a comment |
3
Try evaluating $(sum_{n=1}^{100} A^n) begin{bmatrix} 1 \ 1 end{bmatrix}$ and do the same with the other eigenvector. What happens?
– Giuseppe Negro
Dec 11 at 19:24
3
3
Try evaluating $(sum_{n=1}^{100} A^n) begin{bmatrix} 1 \ 1 end{bmatrix}$ and do the same with the other eigenvector. What happens?
– Giuseppe Negro
Dec 11 at 19:24
Try evaluating $(sum_{n=1}^{100} A^n) begin{bmatrix} 1 \ 1 end{bmatrix}$ and do the same with the other eigenvector. What happens?
– Giuseppe Negro
Dec 11 at 19:24
add a comment |
6 Answers
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2
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Hint: If $$A = begin{bmatrix} 1 & 1 \ 1 & 1 \ end{bmatrix}$$then we have $$A^2 = begin{bmatrix} 1 & 1 \ 1 & 1 \ end{bmatrix}begin{bmatrix} 1 & 1 \ 1 & 1 \ end{bmatrix}=begin{bmatrix} 2 & 2 \ 2 & 2 \ end{bmatrix}\A^3=begin{bmatrix} 1 & 1 \ 1 & 1 \ end{bmatrix}begin{bmatrix} 2&2 \ 2&2 \ end{bmatrix}=begin{bmatrix} 4&4 \ 4&4 \ end{bmatrix}\A^4=begin{bmatrix} 1 & 1 \ 1 & 1 \ end{bmatrix}begin{bmatrix} 4&4 \ 4&4 \ end{bmatrix}=begin{bmatrix}8&8 \ 8&8 \ end{bmatrix}\.\.\.\.$$and you can prove by induction that $$A^k=begin{bmatrix} 2^{k-1}&2^{k-1} \ 2^{k-1}&2^{k-1}\ end{bmatrix}$$can you finish now?
add a comment |
up vote
3
down vote
By linearity, given any polynomial $p$ and matrix $A$, the eigenvectors of $p(A)$ are the same as the eigenvectors of $A$, and the associated eigenvalues are $p(lambda)$; see this question.
For instance, in this case, if $Av=lambda v$, then $A^nv=lambda^nv$, and $(sum_{n=1}^{100}A^n)v=sum_{n=1}^{100}(A^nv )=sum_{n=1}^{100}(lambda^nv)=(sum_{n=1}^{100}lambda^n)v$. Thus, $v$ is an eigenvector with eigenvalue $sum_{n=1}^{100}lambda^n$. $A$ has eigenvectors, eigenvalues of $v=begin{bmatrix} 1 \ 1 end{bmatrix} $ $lambda=2$ and $v=begin{bmatrix} 1 \ -1 end{bmatrix} $ $lambda=0$. $p(2)$ is a geometric series, so it is $2^{101}-1$. $p(0)$ is just zero. So $p(A)$ has eigenvectors, eigenvalues of $v=begin{bmatrix} 1 \ 1 end{bmatrix} $ $lambda=2^{101}-1$ and $v=begin{bmatrix} 1 \ -1 end{bmatrix} $ $lambda=0$
This is the simplest way to go.
– Giuseppe Negro
Dec 12 at 22:14
add a comment |
up vote
1
down vote
Hint :
Recall the Cayley-Hamilton Theorem (by Wikipedia) :
For a general n×n invertible matrix $A$, i.e., one with nonzero determinant, $A^{−1}$ can thus be written as an $(n − 1)$-th order polynomial expression in $A$: As indicated, the Cayley–Hamilton theorem amounts to the identity :
$$p(A) = A^n + c_{n-1}A^{n-1} + dots + cA + (-1)^ndet(A)I_n = O$$
The coefficients ci are given by the elementary symmetric polynomials of the eigenvalues of $A$. Using Newton identities, the elementary symmetric polynomials can in turn be expressed in terms of power sum symmetric polynomials of the eigenvalues:
$$s_k = sum_{i=1}^n lambda_i^k = text{tr}(A^k)$$
add a comment |
up vote
1
down vote
You can explicitly compute $sum_{i=1}^{100}A^i$. First diagonalize $A$, namely rewrite $A$ as $A=PDP^{-1}$.
Now
begin{align}
sum_{i=1}^{100}A^i&=sum_{i=1}^{100}PD^iP^{-1}\&=Pleft(sum_{i=1}^{100} D^iright)P^{-1}
end{align}
Notice that
$$(D-I)left(sum_{i=1}^{100}D^iright)=D^{101}-I.$$
SInce $D-I$ is invertible (you can check it)
$$sum_{i=1}^{100}D^i=(D-I)^{-1}(D^{101}-I).$$
Therefore
$$sum_{i=1}^{100}A^i=P(D-I)^{-1}(D^{101}-I)P^{-1}.$$
add a comment |
up vote
1
down vote
It is easy to prove that for $kin Bbb{N},$ $$A^k=begin{bmatrix} 2^{k-1} & 2^{k-1} \ 2^{k-1} & 2^{k-1} \ end{bmatrix}.$$ The sum is
$$Sigma=begin{bmatrix} 2^{100}-1 & 2^{100}-1 \ 2^{100}-1 & 2^{100}-1 \ end{bmatrix},$$ from where the eigenvalues $0$ and $(2^{101}-2).$
Each matrix $A^k, k=1,dots,100$ has eigenvalues $0$ and $2^k,$ the corresponding eigenvectors are those of $A:$ $(1,-1)^T, (1,1)^T.$
Thus $(1,-1)^T, (1,1)^T$ are eigenvectors of $Sigma.$
add a comment |
up vote
0
down vote
Since you have 2 linear independent eigenvectors, $A$ is diagonalizable. You may find useful to replace $A$ in your polynomial expression by its diagonalization because this will simplify the operations you need to do.
add a comment |
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6 Answers
6
active
oldest
votes
6 Answers
6
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
up vote
2
down vote
accepted
Hint: If $$A = begin{bmatrix} 1 & 1 \ 1 & 1 \ end{bmatrix}$$then we have $$A^2 = begin{bmatrix} 1 & 1 \ 1 & 1 \ end{bmatrix}begin{bmatrix} 1 & 1 \ 1 & 1 \ end{bmatrix}=begin{bmatrix} 2 & 2 \ 2 & 2 \ end{bmatrix}\A^3=begin{bmatrix} 1 & 1 \ 1 & 1 \ end{bmatrix}begin{bmatrix} 2&2 \ 2&2 \ end{bmatrix}=begin{bmatrix} 4&4 \ 4&4 \ end{bmatrix}\A^4=begin{bmatrix} 1 & 1 \ 1 & 1 \ end{bmatrix}begin{bmatrix} 4&4 \ 4&4 \ end{bmatrix}=begin{bmatrix}8&8 \ 8&8 \ end{bmatrix}\.\.\.\.$$and you can prove by induction that $$A^k=begin{bmatrix} 2^{k-1}&2^{k-1} \ 2^{k-1}&2^{k-1}\ end{bmatrix}$$can you finish now?
add a comment |
up vote
2
down vote
accepted
Hint: If $$A = begin{bmatrix} 1 & 1 \ 1 & 1 \ end{bmatrix}$$then we have $$A^2 = begin{bmatrix} 1 & 1 \ 1 & 1 \ end{bmatrix}begin{bmatrix} 1 & 1 \ 1 & 1 \ end{bmatrix}=begin{bmatrix} 2 & 2 \ 2 & 2 \ end{bmatrix}\A^3=begin{bmatrix} 1 & 1 \ 1 & 1 \ end{bmatrix}begin{bmatrix} 2&2 \ 2&2 \ end{bmatrix}=begin{bmatrix} 4&4 \ 4&4 \ end{bmatrix}\A^4=begin{bmatrix} 1 & 1 \ 1 & 1 \ end{bmatrix}begin{bmatrix} 4&4 \ 4&4 \ end{bmatrix}=begin{bmatrix}8&8 \ 8&8 \ end{bmatrix}\.\.\.\.$$and you can prove by induction that $$A^k=begin{bmatrix} 2^{k-1}&2^{k-1} \ 2^{k-1}&2^{k-1}\ end{bmatrix}$$can you finish now?
add a comment |
up vote
2
down vote
accepted
up vote
2
down vote
accepted
Hint: If $$A = begin{bmatrix} 1 & 1 \ 1 & 1 \ end{bmatrix}$$then we have $$A^2 = begin{bmatrix} 1 & 1 \ 1 & 1 \ end{bmatrix}begin{bmatrix} 1 & 1 \ 1 & 1 \ end{bmatrix}=begin{bmatrix} 2 & 2 \ 2 & 2 \ end{bmatrix}\A^3=begin{bmatrix} 1 & 1 \ 1 & 1 \ end{bmatrix}begin{bmatrix} 2&2 \ 2&2 \ end{bmatrix}=begin{bmatrix} 4&4 \ 4&4 \ end{bmatrix}\A^4=begin{bmatrix} 1 & 1 \ 1 & 1 \ end{bmatrix}begin{bmatrix} 4&4 \ 4&4 \ end{bmatrix}=begin{bmatrix}8&8 \ 8&8 \ end{bmatrix}\.\.\.\.$$and you can prove by induction that $$A^k=begin{bmatrix} 2^{k-1}&2^{k-1} \ 2^{k-1}&2^{k-1}\ end{bmatrix}$$can you finish now?
Hint: If $$A = begin{bmatrix} 1 & 1 \ 1 & 1 \ end{bmatrix}$$then we have $$A^2 = begin{bmatrix} 1 & 1 \ 1 & 1 \ end{bmatrix}begin{bmatrix} 1 & 1 \ 1 & 1 \ end{bmatrix}=begin{bmatrix} 2 & 2 \ 2 & 2 \ end{bmatrix}\A^3=begin{bmatrix} 1 & 1 \ 1 & 1 \ end{bmatrix}begin{bmatrix} 2&2 \ 2&2 \ end{bmatrix}=begin{bmatrix} 4&4 \ 4&4 \ end{bmatrix}\A^4=begin{bmatrix} 1 & 1 \ 1 & 1 \ end{bmatrix}begin{bmatrix} 4&4 \ 4&4 \ end{bmatrix}=begin{bmatrix}8&8 \ 8&8 \ end{bmatrix}\.\.\.\.$$and you can prove by induction that $$A^k=begin{bmatrix} 2^{k-1}&2^{k-1} \ 2^{k-1}&2^{k-1}\ end{bmatrix}$$can you finish now?
answered Dec 11 at 19:27
Mostafa Ayaz
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By linearity, given any polynomial $p$ and matrix $A$, the eigenvectors of $p(A)$ are the same as the eigenvectors of $A$, and the associated eigenvalues are $p(lambda)$; see this question.
For instance, in this case, if $Av=lambda v$, then $A^nv=lambda^nv$, and $(sum_{n=1}^{100}A^n)v=sum_{n=1}^{100}(A^nv )=sum_{n=1}^{100}(lambda^nv)=(sum_{n=1}^{100}lambda^n)v$. Thus, $v$ is an eigenvector with eigenvalue $sum_{n=1}^{100}lambda^n$. $A$ has eigenvectors, eigenvalues of $v=begin{bmatrix} 1 \ 1 end{bmatrix} $ $lambda=2$ and $v=begin{bmatrix} 1 \ -1 end{bmatrix} $ $lambda=0$. $p(2)$ is a geometric series, so it is $2^{101}-1$. $p(0)$ is just zero. So $p(A)$ has eigenvectors, eigenvalues of $v=begin{bmatrix} 1 \ 1 end{bmatrix} $ $lambda=2^{101}-1$ and $v=begin{bmatrix} 1 \ -1 end{bmatrix} $ $lambda=0$
This is the simplest way to go.
– Giuseppe Negro
Dec 12 at 22:14
add a comment |
up vote
3
down vote
By linearity, given any polynomial $p$ and matrix $A$, the eigenvectors of $p(A)$ are the same as the eigenvectors of $A$, and the associated eigenvalues are $p(lambda)$; see this question.
For instance, in this case, if $Av=lambda v$, then $A^nv=lambda^nv$, and $(sum_{n=1}^{100}A^n)v=sum_{n=1}^{100}(A^nv )=sum_{n=1}^{100}(lambda^nv)=(sum_{n=1}^{100}lambda^n)v$. Thus, $v$ is an eigenvector with eigenvalue $sum_{n=1}^{100}lambda^n$. $A$ has eigenvectors, eigenvalues of $v=begin{bmatrix} 1 \ 1 end{bmatrix} $ $lambda=2$ and $v=begin{bmatrix} 1 \ -1 end{bmatrix} $ $lambda=0$. $p(2)$ is a geometric series, so it is $2^{101}-1$. $p(0)$ is just zero. So $p(A)$ has eigenvectors, eigenvalues of $v=begin{bmatrix} 1 \ 1 end{bmatrix} $ $lambda=2^{101}-1$ and $v=begin{bmatrix} 1 \ -1 end{bmatrix} $ $lambda=0$
This is the simplest way to go.
– Giuseppe Negro
Dec 12 at 22:14
add a comment |
up vote
3
down vote
up vote
3
down vote
By linearity, given any polynomial $p$ and matrix $A$, the eigenvectors of $p(A)$ are the same as the eigenvectors of $A$, and the associated eigenvalues are $p(lambda)$; see this question.
For instance, in this case, if $Av=lambda v$, then $A^nv=lambda^nv$, and $(sum_{n=1}^{100}A^n)v=sum_{n=1}^{100}(A^nv )=sum_{n=1}^{100}(lambda^nv)=(sum_{n=1}^{100}lambda^n)v$. Thus, $v$ is an eigenvector with eigenvalue $sum_{n=1}^{100}lambda^n$. $A$ has eigenvectors, eigenvalues of $v=begin{bmatrix} 1 \ 1 end{bmatrix} $ $lambda=2$ and $v=begin{bmatrix} 1 \ -1 end{bmatrix} $ $lambda=0$. $p(2)$ is a geometric series, so it is $2^{101}-1$. $p(0)$ is just zero. So $p(A)$ has eigenvectors, eigenvalues of $v=begin{bmatrix} 1 \ 1 end{bmatrix} $ $lambda=2^{101}-1$ and $v=begin{bmatrix} 1 \ -1 end{bmatrix} $ $lambda=0$
By linearity, given any polynomial $p$ and matrix $A$, the eigenvectors of $p(A)$ are the same as the eigenvectors of $A$, and the associated eigenvalues are $p(lambda)$; see this question.
For instance, in this case, if $Av=lambda v$, then $A^nv=lambda^nv$, and $(sum_{n=1}^{100}A^n)v=sum_{n=1}^{100}(A^nv )=sum_{n=1}^{100}(lambda^nv)=(sum_{n=1}^{100}lambda^n)v$. Thus, $v$ is an eigenvector with eigenvalue $sum_{n=1}^{100}lambda^n$. $A$ has eigenvectors, eigenvalues of $v=begin{bmatrix} 1 \ 1 end{bmatrix} $ $lambda=2$ and $v=begin{bmatrix} 1 \ -1 end{bmatrix} $ $lambda=0$. $p(2)$ is a geometric series, so it is $2^{101}-1$. $p(0)$ is just zero. So $p(A)$ has eigenvectors, eigenvalues of $v=begin{bmatrix} 1 \ 1 end{bmatrix} $ $lambda=2^{101}-1$ and $v=begin{bmatrix} 1 \ -1 end{bmatrix} $ $lambda=0$
answered Dec 11 at 22:46
Acccumulation
6,6512616
6,6512616
This is the simplest way to go.
– Giuseppe Negro
Dec 12 at 22:14
add a comment |
This is the simplest way to go.
– Giuseppe Negro
Dec 12 at 22:14
This is the simplest way to go.
– Giuseppe Negro
Dec 12 at 22:14
This is the simplest way to go.
– Giuseppe Negro
Dec 12 at 22:14
add a comment |
up vote
1
down vote
Hint :
Recall the Cayley-Hamilton Theorem (by Wikipedia) :
For a general n×n invertible matrix $A$, i.e., one with nonzero determinant, $A^{−1}$ can thus be written as an $(n − 1)$-th order polynomial expression in $A$: As indicated, the Cayley–Hamilton theorem amounts to the identity :
$$p(A) = A^n + c_{n-1}A^{n-1} + dots + cA + (-1)^ndet(A)I_n = O$$
The coefficients ci are given by the elementary symmetric polynomials of the eigenvalues of $A$. Using Newton identities, the elementary symmetric polynomials can in turn be expressed in terms of power sum symmetric polynomials of the eigenvalues:
$$s_k = sum_{i=1}^n lambda_i^k = text{tr}(A^k)$$
add a comment |
up vote
1
down vote
Hint :
Recall the Cayley-Hamilton Theorem (by Wikipedia) :
For a general n×n invertible matrix $A$, i.e., one with nonzero determinant, $A^{−1}$ can thus be written as an $(n − 1)$-th order polynomial expression in $A$: As indicated, the Cayley–Hamilton theorem amounts to the identity :
$$p(A) = A^n + c_{n-1}A^{n-1} + dots + cA + (-1)^ndet(A)I_n = O$$
The coefficients ci are given by the elementary symmetric polynomials of the eigenvalues of $A$. Using Newton identities, the elementary symmetric polynomials can in turn be expressed in terms of power sum symmetric polynomials of the eigenvalues:
$$s_k = sum_{i=1}^n lambda_i^k = text{tr}(A^k)$$
add a comment |
up vote
1
down vote
up vote
1
down vote
Hint :
Recall the Cayley-Hamilton Theorem (by Wikipedia) :
For a general n×n invertible matrix $A$, i.e., one with nonzero determinant, $A^{−1}$ can thus be written as an $(n − 1)$-th order polynomial expression in $A$: As indicated, the Cayley–Hamilton theorem amounts to the identity :
$$p(A) = A^n + c_{n-1}A^{n-1} + dots + cA + (-1)^ndet(A)I_n = O$$
The coefficients ci are given by the elementary symmetric polynomials of the eigenvalues of $A$. Using Newton identities, the elementary symmetric polynomials can in turn be expressed in terms of power sum symmetric polynomials of the eigenvalues:
$$s_k = sum_{i=1}^n lambda_i^k = text{tr}(A^k)$$
Hint :
Recall the Cayley-Hamilton Theorem (by Wikipedia) :
For a general n×n invertible matrix $A$, i.e., one with nonzero determinant, $A^{−1}$ can thus be written as an $(n − 1)$-th order polynomial expression in $A$: As indicated, the Cayley–Hamilton theorem amounts to the identity :
$$p(A) = A^n + c_{n-1}A^{n-1} + dots + cA + (-1)^ndet(A)I_n = O$$
The coefficients ci are given by the elementary symmetric polynomials of the eigenvalues of $A$. Using Newton identities, the elementary symmetric polynomials can in turn be expressed in terms of power sum symmetric polynomials of the eigenvalues:
$$s_k = sum_{i=1}^n lambda_i^k = text{tr}(A^k)$$
answered Dec 11 at 19:20
Rebellos
13.9k31244
13.9k31244
add a comment |
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up vote
1
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You can explicitly compute $sum_{i=1}^{100}A^i$. First diagonalize $A$, namely rewrite $A$ as $A=PDP^{-1}$.
Now
begin{align}
sum_{i=1}^{100}A^i&=sum_{i=1}^{100}PD^iP^{-1}\&=Pleft(sum_{i=1}^{100} D^iright)P^{-1}
end{align}
Notice that
$$(D-I)left(sum_{i=1}^{100}D^iright)=D^{101}-I.$$
SInce $D-I$ is invertible (you can check it)
$$sum_{i=1}^{100}D^i=(D-I)^{-1}(D^{101}-I).$$
Therefore
$$sum_{i=1}^{100}A^i=P(D-I)^{-1}(D^{101}-I)P^{-1}.$$
add a comment |
up vote
1
down vote
You can explicitly compute $sum_{i=1}^{100}A^i$. First diagonalize $A$, namely rewrite $A$ as $A=PDP^{-1}$.
Now
begin{align}
sum_{i=1}^{100}A^i&=sum_{i=1}^{100}PD^iP^{-1}\&=Pleft(sum_{i=1}^{100} D^iright)P^{-1}
end{align}
Notice that
$$(D-I)left(sum_{i=1}^{100}D^iright)=D^{101}-I.$$
SInce $D-I$ is invertible (you can check it)
$$sum_{i=1}^{100}D^i=(D-I)^{-1}(D^{101}-I).$$
Therefore
$$sum_{i=1}^{100}A^i=P(D-I)^{-1}(D^{101}-I)P^{-1}.$$
add a comment |
up vote
1
down vote
up vote
1
down vote
You can explicitly compute $sum_{i=1}^{100}A^i$. First diagonalize $A$, namely rewrite $A$ as $A=PDP^{-1}$.
Now
begin{align}
sum_{i=1}^{100}A^i&=sum_{i=1}^{100}PD^iP^{-1}\&=Pleft(sum_{i=1}^{100} D^iright)P^{-1}
end{align}
Notice that
$$(D-I)left(sum_{i=1}^{100}D^iright)=D^{101}-I.$$
SInce $D-I$ is invertible (you can check it)
$$sum_{i=1}^{100}D^i=(D-I)^{-1}(D^{101}-I).$$
Therefore
$$sum_{i=1}^{100}A^i=P(D-I)^{-1}(D^{101}-I)P^{-1}.$$
You can explicitly compute $sum_{i=1}^{100}A^i$. First diagonalize $A$, namely rewrite $A$ as $A=PDP^{-1}$.
Now
begin{align}
sum_{i=1}^{100}A^i&=sum_{i=1}^{100}PD^iP^{-1}\&=Pleft(sum_{i=1}^{100} D^iright)P^{-1}
end{align}
Notice that
$$(D-I)left(sum_{i=1}^{100}D^iright)=D^{101}-I.$$
SInce $D-I$ is invertible (you can check it)
$$sum_{i=1}^{100}D^i=(D-I)^{-1}(D^{101}-I).$$
Therefore
$$sum_{i=1}^{100}A^i=P(D-I)^{-1}(D^{101}-I)P^{-1}.$$
answered Dec 11 at 19:37
user9077
1,254612
1,254612
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up vote
1
down vote
It is easy to prove that for $kin Bbb{N},$ $$A^k=begin{bmatrix} 2^{k-1} & 2^{k-1} \ 2^{k-1} & 2^{k-1} \ end{bmatrix}.$$ The sum is
$$Sigma=begin{bmatrix} 2^{100}-1 & 2^{100}-1 \ 2^{100}-1 & 2^{100}-1 \ end{bmatrix},$$ from where the eigenvalues $0$ and $(2^{101}-2).$
Each matrix $A^k, k=1,dots,100$ has eigenvalues $0$ and $2^k,$ the corresponding eigenvectors are those of $A:$ $(1,-1)^T, (1,1)^T.$
Thus $(1,-1)^T, (1,1)^T$ are eigenvectors of $Sigma.$
add a comment |
up vote
1
down vote
It is easy to prove that for $kin Bbb{N},$ $$A^k=begin{bmatrix} 2^{k-1} & 2^{k-1} \ 2^{k-1} & 2^{k-1} \ end{bmatrix}.$$ The sum is
$$Sigma=begin{bmatrix} 2^{100}-1 & 2^{100}-1 \ 2^{100}-1 & 2^{100}-1 \ end{bmatrix},$$ from where the eigenvalues $0$ and $(2^{101}-2).$
Each matrix $A^k, k=1,dots,100$ has eigenvalues $0$ and $2^k,$ the corresponding eigenvectors are those of $A:$ $(1,-1)^T, (1,1)^T.$
Thus $(1,-1)^T, (1,1)^T$ are eigenvectors of $Sigma.$
add a comment |
up vote
1
down vote
up vote
1
down vote
It is easy to prove that for $kin Bbb{N},$ $$A^k=begin{bmatrix} 2^{k-1} & 2^{k-1} \ 2^{k-1} & 2^{k-1} \ end{bmatrix}.$$ The sum is
$$Sigma=begin{bmatrix} 2^{100}-1 & 2^{100}-1 \ 2^{100}-1 & 2^{100}-1 \ end{bmatrix},$$ from where the eigenvalues $0$ and $(2^{101}-2).$
Each matrix $A^k, k=1,dots,100$ has eigenvalues $0$ and $2^k,$ the corresponding eigenvectors are those of $A:$ $(1,-1)^T, (1,1)^T.$
Thus $(1,-1)^T, (1,1)^T$ are eigenvectors of $Sigma.$
It is easy to prove that for $kin Bbb{N},$ $$A^k=begin{bmatrix} 2^{k-1} & 2^{k-1} \ 2^{k-1} & 2^{k-1} \ end{bmatrix}.$$ The sum is
$$Sigma=begin{bmatrix} 2^{100}-1 & 2^{100}-1 \ 2^{100}-1 & 2^{100}-1 \ end{bmatrix},$$ from where the eigenvalues $0$ and $(2^{101}-2).$
Each matrix $A^k, k=1,dots,100$ has eigenvalues $0$ and $2^k,$ the corresponding eigenvectors are those of $A:$ $(1,-1)^T, (1,1)^T.$
Thus $(1,-1)^T, (1,1)^T$ are eigenvectors of $Sigma.$
edited Dec 11 at 23:13
answered Dec 11 at 19:55
user376343
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Since you have 2 linear independent eigenvectors, $A$ is diagonalizable. You may find useful to replace $A$ in your polynomial expression by its diagonalization because this will simplify the operations you need to do.
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Since you have 2 linear independent eigenvectors, $A$ is diagonalizable. You may find useful to replace $A$ in your polynomial expression by its diagonalization because this will simplify the operations you need to do.
add a comment |
up vote
0
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Since you have 2 linear independent eigenvectors, $A$ is diagonalizable. You may find useful to replace $A$ in your polynomial expression by its diagonalization because this will simplify the operations you need to do.
Since you have 2 linear independent eigenvectors, $A$ is diagonalizable. You may find useful to replace $A$ in your polynomial expression by its diagonalization because this will simplify the operations you need to do.
answered Dec 11 at 19:23
Javi
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Try evaluating $(sum_{n=1}^{100} A^n) begin{bmatrix} 1 \ 1 end{bmatrix}$ and do the same with the other eigenvector. What happens?
– Giuseppe Negro
Dec 11 at 19:24