“Get involve” or “get involved”?
0
I'm little confused.
Which one's grammatically correct?/sound correct?
"I've no obligation to get involve in the situation"
or
"I've no obligation to get involved in the situation"
PS. I think that 1st one sounds good.
grammaticality sentence-patterns present-participle
edited 58 secs ago
Lawrence
31.1k562110
asked 35 mins ago
JetJet
1
New contributor
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add a comment |
0
I'm little confused.
Which one's grammatically correct?/sound correct?
"I've no obligation to get involve in the situation"
or
"I've no obligation to get involved in the situation"
PS. I think that 1st one sounds good.
grammaticality sentence-patterns present-participle
edited 58 secs ago
Lawrence
31.1k562110
asked 35 mins ago
JetJet
1
New contributor
Jet is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.
The the form of the verb 'to involve' present in that sentence functions as an adverb. It describes the mode in which 'I have no obligation to get in the situation'. That is why it should take the form of a participle, which is involved.
– mama
16 mins ago
The first sentence has 'involve' as the target of the verb 'get'. We cannot conclude that it modifies the verb because it is not the participle form. It makes 'involve' look like a noun. It doesn't make sense. Unless there is someone called 'Involve', and the sentence means 'I have not obligation to get [that person called] Involve in the situation'.
– mama
12 mins ago
@mama That looks like an answer.
– Lawrence
5 mins ago
add a comment |
0
0
0
I'm little confused.
Which one's grammatically correct?/sound correct?
"I've no obligation to get involve in the situation"
or
"I've no obligation to get involved in the situation"
PS. I think that 1st one sounds good.
grammaticality sentence-patterns present-participle
edited 58 secs ago
Lawrence
31.1k562110
asked 35 mins ago
JetJet
1
New contributor
Jet is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.
I'm little confused.
Which one's grammatically correct?/sound correct?
"I've no obligation to get involve in the situation"
or
"I've no obligation to get involved in the situation"
PS. I think that 1st one sounds good.
grammaticality sentence-patterns present-participle
grammaticality sentence-patterns present-participle
edited 58 secs ago
Lawrence
31.1k562110
asked 35 mins ago
JetJet
1
New contributor
Jet is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.
edited 58 secs ago
Lawrence
31.1k562110
asked 35 mins ago
JetJet
1
New contributor
Jet is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.
edited 58 secs ago
Lawrence
31.1k562110
edited 58 secs ago
Lawrence
31.1k562110
edited 58 secs ago
Lawrence
31.1k562110
31.1k562110
asked 35 mins ago
JetJet
1
New contributor
Jet is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.
asked 35 mins ago
JetJet
1
asked 35 mins ago
JetJet
1
1
New contributor
Jet is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.
New contributor
Jet is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.
Jet is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.
The the form of the verb 'to involve' present in that sentence functions as an adverb. It describes the mode in which 'I have no obligation to get in the situation'. That is why it should take the form of a participle, which is involved.
– mama
16 mins ago
The first sentence has 'involve' as the target of the verb 'get'. We cannot conclude that it modifies the verb because it is not the participle form. It makes 'involve' look like a noun. It doesn't make sense. Unless there is someone called 'Involve', and the sentence means 'I have not obligation to get [that person called] Involve in the situation'.
– mama
12 mins ago
@mama That looks like an answer.
– Lawrence
5 mins ago
add a comment |
The the form of the verb 'to involve' present in that sentence functions as an adverb. It describes the mode in which 'I have no obligation to get in the situation'. That is why it should take the form of a participle, which is involved.
– mama
16 mins ago
The first sentence has 'involve' as the target of the verb 'get'. We cannot conclude that it modifies the verb because it is not the participle form. It makes 'involve' look like a noun. It doesn't make sense. Unless there is someone called 'Involve', and the sentence means 'I have not obligation to get [that person called] Involve in the situation'.
– mama
12 mins ago
@mama That looks like an answer.
– Lawrence
5 mins ago
The the form of the verb 'to involve' present in that sentence functions as an adverb. It describes the mode in which 'I have no obligation to get in the situation'. That is why it should take the form of a participle, which is involved.
– mama
16 mins ago
The the form of the verb 'to involve' present in that sentence functions as an adverb. It describes the mode in which 'I have no obligation to get in the situation'. That is why it should take the form of a participle, which is involved.
– mama
16 mins ago
The first sentence has 'involve' as the target of the verb 'get'. We cannot conclude that it modifies the verb because it is not the participle form. It makes 'involve' look like a noun. It doesn't make sense. Unless there is someone called 'Involve', and the sentence means 'I have not obligation to get [that person called] Involve in the situation'.
– mama
12 mins ago
The first sentence has 'involve' as the target of the verb 'get'. We cannot conclude that it modifies the verb because it is not the participle form. It makes 'involve' look like a noun. It doesn't make sense. Unless there is someone called 'Involve', and the sentence means 'I have not obligation to get [that person called] Involve in the situation'.
– mama
12 mins ago
@mama That looks like an answer.
– Lawrence
5 mins ago
@mama That looks like an answer.
– Lawrence
5 mins ago
add a comment |
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The the form of the verb 'to involve' present in that sentence functions as an adverb. It describes the mode in which 'I have no obligation to get in the situation'. That is why it should take the form of a participle, which is involved.
– mama
16 mins ago
The first sentence has 'involve' as the target of the verb 'get'. We cannot conclude that it modifies the verb because it is not the participle form. It makes 'involve' look like a noun. It doesn't make sense. Unless there is someone called 'Involve', and the sentence means 'I have not obligation to get [that person called] Involve in the situation'.
– mama
12 mins ago
@mama That looks like an answer.
– Lawrence
5 mins ago