Subject pronoun after verb












0















"Perish the two hands of Abu Lahab [an uncle of the Prophet], and perish he!"



Perish is verb and he is a subject pronoun, so why is "perish he!" used here?










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  • It's archaic English word order. (As is the subjunctive mood of perish.) EIther this was written long ago, or it was written to sound as if it were written long ago.

    – Peter Shor
    10 hours ago











  • Welcome to EL&U. It appears that you are quoting a sentence from a publication. Please provide the name & other details of the publication, and preferably a web-link to the relevant part of the publication: context can be important in answering Qs like this.

    – TrevorD
    10 hours ago











  • It first part refers to perishing the hands and the latter refers to the person.

    – Karlomanio
    9 hours ago











  • This sounds as though it might be a translation from Arabic. If that's the case how old is the translation, and is the word order similar in the Arabic?

    – BoldBen
    2 hours ago
















0















"Perish the two hands of Abu Lahab [an uncle of the Prophet], and perish he!"



Perish is verb and he is a subject pronoun, so why is "perish he!" used here?










share|improve this question









New contributor




Mohammed hafiz ullah is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.





















  • It's archaic English word order. (As is the subjunctive mood of perish.) EIther this was written long ago, or it was written to sound as if it were written long ago.

    – Peter Shor
    10 hours ago











  • Welcome to EL&U. It appears that you are quoting a sentence from a publication. Please provide the name & other details of the publication, and preferably a web-link to the relevant part of the publication: context can be important in answering Qs like this.

    – TrevorD
    10 hours ago











  • It first part refers to perishing the hands and the latter refers to the person.

    – Karlomanio
    9 hours ago











  • This sounds as though it might be a translation from Arabic. If that's the case how old is the translation, and is the word order similar in the Arabic?

    – BoldBen
    2 hours ago














0












0








0


1






"Perish the two hands of Abu Lahab [an uncle of the Prophet], and perish he!"



Perish is verb and he is a subject pronoun, so why is "perish he!" used here?










share|improve this question









New contributor




Mohammed hafiz ullah is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.












"Perish the two hands of Abu Lahab [an uncle of the Prophet], and perish he!"



Perish is verb and he is a subject pronoun, so why is "perish he!" used here?







optative-mood






share|improve this question









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Mohammed hafiz ullah is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.











share|improve this question









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share|improve this question




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edited 10 hours ago









TrevorD

10.6k22257




10.6k22257






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asked 10 hours ago









Mohammed hafiz ullahMohammed hafiz ullah

1




1




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New contributor





Mohammed hafiz ullah is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.






Mohammed hafiz ullah is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.













  • It's archaic English word order. (As is the subjunctive mood of perish.) EIther this was written long ago, or it was written to sound as if it were written long ago.

    – Peter Shor
    10 hours ago











  • Welcome to EL&U. It appears that you are quoting a sentence from a publication. Please provide the name & other details of the publication, and preferably a web-link to the relevant part of the publication: context can be important in answering Qs like this.

    – TrevorD
    10 hours ago











  • It first part refers to perishing the hands and the latter refers to the person.

    – Karlomanio
    9 hours ago











  • This sounds as though it might be a translation from Arabic. If that's the case how old is the translation, and is the word order similar in the Arabic?

    – BoldBen
    2 hours ago



















  • It's archaic English word order. (As is the subjunctive mood of perish.) EIther this was written long ago, or it was written to sound as if it were written long ago.

    – Peter Shor
    10 hours ago











  • Welcome to EL&U. It appears that you are quoting a sentence from a publication. Please provide the name & other details of the publication, and preferably a web-link to the relevant part of the publication: context can be important in answering Qs like this.

    – TrevorD
    10 hours ago











  • It first part refers to perishing the hands and the latter refers to the person.

    – Karlomanio
    9 hours ago











  • This sounds as though it might be a translation from Arabic. If that's the case how old is the translation, and is the word order similar in the Arabic?

    – BoldBen
    2 hours ago

















It's archaic English word order. (As is the subjunctive mood of perish.) EIther this was written long ago, or it was written to sound as if it were written long ago.

– Peter Shor
10 hours ago





It's archaic English word order. (As is the subjunctive mood of perish.) EIther this was written long ago, or it was written to sound as if it were written long ago.

– Peter Shor
10 hours ago













Welcome to EL&U. It appears that you are quoting a sentence from a publication. Please provide the name & other details of the publication, and preferably a web-link to the relevant part of the publication: context can be important in answering Qs like this.

– TrevorD
10 hours ago





Welcome to EL&U. It appears that you are quoting a sentence from a publication. Please provide the name & other details of the publication, and preferably a web-link to the relevant part of the publication: context can be important in answering Qs like this.

– TrevorD
10 hours ago













It first part refers to perishing the hands and the latter refers to the person.

– Karlomanio
9 hours ago





It first part refers to perishing the hands and the latter refers to the person.

– Karlomanio
9 hours ago













This sounds as though it might be a translation from Arabic. If that's the case how old is the translation, and is the word order similar in the Arabic?

– BoldBen
2 hours ago





This sounds as though it might be a translation from Arabic. If that's the case how old is the translation, and is the word order similar in the Arabic?

– BoldBen
2 hours ago










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"perish the thought" is a common idiom, meaning ca. "forget it". It has subjunctive grammatical mood. It appears like an imperative, but imperatives do not use pronouns.






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    "perish the thought" is a common idiom, meaning ca. "forget it". It has subjunctive grammatical mood. It appears like an imperative, but imperatives do not use pronouns.






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      "perish the thought" is a common idiom, meaning ca. "forget it". It has subjunctive grammatical mood. It appears like an imperative, but imperatives do not use pronouns.






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        "perish the thought" is a common idiom, meaning ca. "forget it". It has subjunctive grammatical mood. It appears like an imperative, but imperatives do not use pronouns.






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        "perish the thought" is a common idiom, meaning ca. "forget it". It has subjunctive grammatical mood. It appears like an imperative, but imperatives do not use pronouns.







        share|improve this answer












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        answered 10 hours ago









        vectoryvectory

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