Which is correct and why? [duplicate]












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  • When is a gerund supposed to be preceded by a possessive adjective/determiner?

    4 answers




I'd like to know which is the correct option:




He went to bed without my telling him to.

He went to bed without me telling him to.




I was pretty certain it is the first, but I am unclear on why.



Is telling a gerund or participle?






grammar gerunds present-participle







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Diane S. is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
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marked as duplicate by RegDwigнt♦ 10 hours ago


This question has been asked before and already has an answer. If those answers do not fully address your question, please ask a new question.























    0
















    This question already has an answer here:




    • When is a gerund supposed to be preceded by a possessive adjective/determiner?

      4 answers




    I'd like to know which is the correct option:




    He went to bed without my telling him to.

    He went to bed without me telling him to.




    I was pretty certain it is the first, but I am unclear on why.



    Is telling a gerund or participle?






    grammar gerunds present-participle







    share|improve this question









    New contributor




    Diane S. is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
    Check out our Code of Conduct.











    marked as duplicate by RegDwigнt♦ 10 hours ago


    This question has been asked before and already has an answer. If those answers do not fully address your question, please ask a new question.





















      0












      0








      0









      This question already has an answer here:




      • When is a gerund supposed to be preceded by a possessive adjective/determiner?

        4 answers




      I'd like to know which is the correct option:




      He went to bed without my telling him to.

      He went to bed without me telling him to.




      I was pretty certain it is the first, but I am unclear on why.



      Is telling a gerund or participle?






      grammar gerunds present-participle







      share|improve this question









      New contributor




      Diane S. is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
      Check out our Code of Conduct.













      This question already has an answer here:




      • When is a gerund supposed to be preceded by a possessive adjective/determiner?

        4 answers




      I'd like to know which is the correct option:




      He went to bed without my telling him to.

      He went to bed without me telling him to.




      I was pretty certain it is the first, but I am unclear on why.



      Is telling a gerund or participle?





      This question already has an answer here:




      • When is a gerund supposed to be preceded by a possessive adjective/determiner?

        4 answers







      grammar gerunds present-participle




      grammar gerunds present-participle






      share|improve this question









      New contributor




      Diane S. is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
      Check out our Code of Conduct.











      share|improve this question









      New contributor




      Diane S. is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
      Check out our Code of Conduct.









      share|improve this question




      share|improve this question








      edited 10 hours ago









      Lordology

      1,187117




      1,187117






      New contributor




      Diane S. is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
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      asked 11 hours ago









      Diane S.Diane S.

      1




      1




      New contributor




      Diane S. is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
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      New contributor





      Diane S. is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
      Check out our Code of Conduct.






      Diane S. is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
      Check out our Code of Conduct.




      marked as duplicate by RegDwigнt♦ 10 hours ago


      This question has been asked before and already has an answer. If those answers do not fully address your question, please ask a new question.









      marked as duplicate by RegDwigнt♦ 10 hours ago


      This question has been asked before and already has an answer. If those answers do not fully address your question, please ask a new question.
























          1 Answer
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          " Telling " is a gerund here; it refers to the act of the speaker. Gerunds function like nouns but being born out of verbs retain verb like qualities of accepting objects or complements. A noun can have an attributive possessive adjective. A natural corollary to this proposition is that a gerund can be qualified by a possessive adjective as well. Hence WITHOUT MY TELLING.






          share|improve this answer
























          • Well yes they accept objects or complements. But they also accept subjects. Which is why "without me telling him to" is perfectly grammatical English.

            – RegDwigнt♦
            10 hours ago











          • My thrust was to prove a point to the inquisitor and never for once I said the other incorrect. The other one is informal, at times sounds weird as here in the example— excuse me my non-native ears.

            – Barid Baran Acharya
            9 hours ago











          • It's the possessive that sounds weird in this example. And indeed in most examples I can think of where the gerund has an object and follows a without. Anyway, that's beside the point. If both X and Y are fine, then you have to say "both X and Y are fine". Saying "X is fine, hence X" is not saying that.

            – RegDwigнt♦
            9 hours ago


















          1 Answer
          1






          active

          oldest

          votes








          1 Answer
          1






          active

          oldest

          votes









          active

          oldest

          votes






          active

          oldest

          votes









          0














          " Telling " is a gerund here; it refers to the act of the speaker. Gerunds function like nouns but being born out of verbs retain verb like qualities of accepting objects or complements. A noun can have an attributive possessive adjective. A natural corollary to this proposition is that a gerund can be qualified by a possessive adjective as well. Hence WITHOUT MY TELLING.






          share|improve this answer
























          • Well yes they accept objects or complements. But they also accept subjects. Which is why "without me telling him to" is perfectly grammatical English.

            – RegDwigнt♦
            10 hours ago











          • My thrust was to prove a point to the inquisitor and never for once I said the other incorrect. The other one is informal, at times sounds weird as here in the example— excuse me my non-native ears.

            – Barid Baran Acharya
            9 hours ago











          • It's the possessive that sounds weird in this example. And indeed in most examples I can think of where the gerund has an object and follows a without. Anyway, that's beside the point. If both X and Y are fine, then you have to say "both X and Y are fine". Saying "X is fine, hence X" is not saying that.

            – RegDwigнt♦
            9 hours ago
















          0














          " Telling " is a gerund here; it refers to the act of the speaker. Gerunds function like nouns but being born out of verbs retain verb like qualities of accepting objects or complements. A noun can have an attributive possessive adjective. A natural corollary to this proposition is that a gerund can be qualified by a possessive adjective as well. Hence WITHOUT MY TELLING.






          share|improve this answer
























          • Well yes they accept objects or complements. But they also accept subjects. Which is why "without me telling him to" is perfectly grammatical English.

            – RegDwigнt♦
            10 hours ago











          • My thrust was to prove a point to the inquisitor and never for once I said the other incorrect. The other one is informal, at times sounds weird as here in the example— excuse me my non-native ears.

            – Barid Baran Acharya
            9 hours ago











          • It's the possessive that sounds weird in this example. And indeed in most examples I can think of where the gerund has an object and follows a without. Anyway, that's beside the point. If both X and Y are fine, then you have to say "both X and Y are fine". Saying "X is fine, hence X" is not saying that.

            – RegDwigнt♦
            9 hours ago














          0












          0








          0







          " Telling " is a gerund here; it refers to the act of the speaker. Gerunds function like nouns but being born out of verbs retain verb like qualities of accepting objects or complements. A noun can have an attributive possessive adjective. A natural corollary to this proposition is that a gerund can be qualified by a possessive adjective as well. Hence WITHOUT MY TELLING.






          share|improve this answer













          " Telling " is a gerund here; it refers to the act of the speaker. Gerunds function like nouns but being born out of verbs retain verb like qualities of accepting objects or complements. A noun can have an attributive possessive adjective. A natural corollary to this proposition is that a gerund can be qualified by a possessive adjective as well. Hence WITHOUT MY TELLING.







          share|improve this answer












          share|improve this answer



          share|improve this answer










          answered 10 hours ago









          Barid Baran AcharyaBarid Baran Acharya

          1,979613




          1,979613













          • Well yes they accept objects or complements. But they also accept subjects. Which is why "without me telling him to" is perfectly grammatical English.

            – RegDwigнt♦
            10 hours ago











          • My thrust was to prove a point to the inquisitor and never for once I said the other incorrect. The other one is informal, at times sounds weird as here in the example— excuse me my non-native ears.

            – Barid Baran Acharya
            9 hours ago











          • It's the possessive that sounds weird in this example. And indeed in most examples I can think of where the gerund has an object and follows a without. Anyway, that's beside the point. If both X and Y are fine, then you have to say "both X and Y are fine". Saying "X is fine, hence X" is not saying that.

            – RegDwigнt♦
            9 hours ago



















          • Well yes they accept objects or complements. But they also accept subjects. Which is why "without me telling him to" is perfectly grammatical English.

            – RegDwigнt♦
            10 hours ago











          • My thrust was to prove a point to the inquisitor and never for once I said the other incorrect. The other one is informal, at times sounds weird as here in the example— excuse me my non-native ears.

            – Barid Baran Acharya
            9 hours ago











          • It's the possessive that sounds weird in this example. And indeed in most examples I can think of where the gerund has an object and follows a without. Anyway, that's beside the point. If both X and Y are fine, then you have to say "both X and Y are fine". Saying "X is fine, hence X" is not saying that.

            – RegDwigнt♦
            9 hours ago

















          Well yes they accept objects or complements. But they also accept subjects. Which is why "without me telling him to" is perfectly grammatical English.

          – RegDwigнt♦
          10 hours ago





          Well yes they accept objects or complements. But they also accept subjects. Which is why "without me telling him to" is perfectly grammatical English.

          – RegDwigнt♦
          10 hours ago













          My thrust was to prove a point to the inquisitor and never for once I said the other incorrect. The other one is informal, at times sounds weird as here in the example— excuse me my non-native ears.

          – Barid Baran Acharya
          9 hours ago





          My thrust was to prove a point to the inquisitor and never for once I said the other incorrect. The other one is informal, at times sounds weird as here in the example— excuse me my non-native ears.

          – Barid Baran Acharya
          9 hours ago













          It's the possessive that sounds weird in this example. And indeed in most examples I can think of where the gerund has an object and follows a without. Anyway, that's beside the point. If both X and Y are fine, then you have to say "both X and Y are fine". Saying "X is fine, hence X" is not saying that.

          – RegDwigнt♦
          9 hours ago





          It's the possessive that sounds weird in this example. And indeed in most examples I can think of where the gerund has an object and follows a without. Anyway, that's beside the point. If both X and Y are fine, then you have to say "both X and Y are fine". Saying "X is fine, hence X" is not saying that.

          – RegDwigнt♦
          9 hours ago



          -

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