Which is correct and why? [duplicate]
This question already has an answer here:
When is a gerund supposed to be preceded by a possessive adjective/determiner?
4 answers
I'd like to know which is the correct option:
He went to bed without my telling him to.
He went to bed without me telling him to.
I was pretty certain it is the first, but I am unclear on why.
Is telling a gerund or participle?
grammar gerunds present-participle
edited 10 hours ago
Lordology
1,187117
asked 11 hours ago
Diane S.Diane S.
1
New contributor
Diane S. is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
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marked as duplicate by RegDwigнt♦ 10 hours ago
This question has been asked before and already has an answer. If those answers do not fully address your question, please ask a new question.
add a comment |
This question already has an answer here:
When is a gerund supposed to be preceded by a possessive adjective/determiner?
4 answers
I'd like to know which is the correct option:
He went to bed without my telling him to.
He went to bed without me telling him to.
I was pretty certain it is the first, but I am unclear on why.
Is telling a gerund or participle?
grammar gerunds present-participle
edited 10 hours ago
Lordology
1,187117
asked 11 hours ago
Diane S.Diane S.
1
New contributor
Diane S. is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.
marked as duplicate by RegDwigнt♦ 10 hours ago
This question has been asked before and already has an answer. If those answers do not fully address your question, please ask a new question.
add a comment |
This question already has an answer here:
When is a gerund supposed to be preceded by a possessive adjective/determiner?
4 answers
I'd like to know which is the correct option:
He went to bed without my telling him to.
He went to bed without me telling him to.
I was pretty certain it is the first, but I am unclear on why.
Is telling a gerund or participle?
grammar gerunds present-participle
edited 10 hours ago
Lordology
1,187117
asked 11 hours ago
Diane S.Diane S.
1
New contributor
Diane S. is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.
This question already has an answer here:
When is a gerund supposed to be preceded by a possessive adjective/determiner?
4 answers
I'd like to know which is the correct option:
He went to bed without my telling him to.
He went to bed without me telling him to.
I was pretty certain it is the first, but I am unclear on why.
Is telling a gerund or participle?
This question already has an answer here:
When is a gerund supposed to be preceded by a possessive adjective/determiner?
4 answers
grammar gerunds present-participle
grammar gerunds present-participle
edited 10 hours ago
Lordology
1,187117
asked 11 hours ago
Diane S.Diane S.
1
New contributor
Diane S. is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.
edited 10 hours ago
Lordology
1,187117
asked 11 hours ago
Diane S.Diane S.
1
New contributor
Diane S. is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.
edited 10 hours ago
Lordology
1,187117
edited 10 hours ago
Lordology
1,187117
edited 10 hours ago
Lordology
1,187117
1,187117
asked 11 hours ago
Diane S.Diane S.
1
New contributor
Diane S. is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.
asked 11 hours ago
Diane S.Diane S.
1
asked 11 hours ago
Diane S.Diane S.
1
1
New contributor
Diane S. is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.
New contributor
Diane S. is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.
Diane S. is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.
marked as duplicate by RegDwigнt♦ 10 hours ago
This question has been asked before and already has an answer. If those answers do not fully address your question, please ask a new question.
marked as duplicate by RegDwigнt♦ 10 hours ago
This question has been asked before and already has an answer. If those answers do not fully address your question, please ask a new question.
add a comment |
add a comment |
1 Answer
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oldest
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" Telling " is a gerund here; it refers to the act of the speaker. Gerunds function like nouns but being born out of verbs retain verb like qualities of accepting objects or complements. A noun can have an attributive possessive adjective. A natural corollary to this proposition is that a gerund can be qualified by a possessive adjective as well. Hence WITHOUT MY TELLING.
answered 10 hours ago
Barid Baran AcharyaBarid Baran Acharya
1,979613
Well yes they accept objects or complements. But they also accept subjects. Which is why "without me telling him to" is perfectly grammatical English.
– RegDwigнt♦
10 hours ago
My thrust was to prove a point to the inquisitor and never for once I said the other incorrect. The other one is informal, at times sounds weird as here in the example— excuse me my non-native ears.
– Barid Baran Acharya
9 hours ago
It's the possessive that sounds weird in this example. And indeed in most examples I can think of where the gerund has an object and follows a without. Anyway, that's beside the point. If both X and Y are fine, then you have to say "both X and Y are fine". Saying "X is fine, hence X" is not saying that.
– RegDwigнt♦
9 hours ago
add a comment |
1 Answer
1
active
oldest
votes
1 Answer
1
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
" Telling " is a gerund here; it refers to the act of the speaker. Gerunds function like nouns but being born out of verbs retain verb like qualities of accepting objects or complements. A noun can have an attributive possessive adjective. A natural corollary to this proposition is that a gerund can be qualified by a possessive adjective as well. Hence WITHOUT MY TELLING.
answered 10 hours ago
Barid Baran AcharyaBarid Baran Acharya
1,979613
Well yes they accept objects or complements. But they also accept subjects. Which is why "without me telling him to" is perfectly grammatical English.
– RegDwigнt♦
10 hours ago
My thrust was to prove a point to the inquisitor and never for once I said the other incorrect. The other one is informal, at times sounds weird as here in the example— excuse me my non-native ears.
– Barid Baran Acharya
9 hours ago
It's the possessive that sounds weird in this example. And indeed in most examples I can think of where the gerund has an object and follows a without. Anyway, that's beside the point. If both X and Y are fine, then you have to say "both X and Y are fine". Saying "X is fine, hence X" is not saying that.
– RegDwigнt♦
9 hours ago
add a comment |
" Telling " is a gerund here; it refers to the act of the speaker. Gerunds function like nouns but being born out of verbs retain verb like qualities of accepting objects or complements. A noun can have an attributive possessive adjective. A natural corollary to this proposition is that a gerund can be qualified by a possessive adjective as well. Hence WITHOUT MY TELLING.
answered 10 hours ago
Barid Baran AcharyaBarid Baran Acharya
1,979613
Well yes they accept objects or complements. But they also accept subjects. Which is why "without me telling him to" is perfectly grammatical English.
– RegDwigнt♦
10 hours ago
My thrust was to prove a point to the inquisitor and never for once I said the other incorrect. The other one is informal, at times sounds weird as here in the example— excuse me my non-native ears.
– Barid Baran Acharya
9 hours ago
It's the possessive that sounds weird in this example. And indeed in most examples I can think of where the gerund has an object and follows a without. Anyway, that's beside the point. If both X and Y are fine, then you have to say "both X and Y are fine". Saying "X is fine, hence X" is not saying that.
– RegDwigнt♦
9 hours ago
add a comment |
" Telling " is a gerund here; it refers to the act of the speaker. Gerunds function like nouns but being born out of verbs retain verb like qualities of accepting objects or complements. A noun can have an attributive possessive adjective. A natural corollary to this proposition is that a gerund can be qualified by a possessive adjective as well. Hence WITHOUT MY TELLING.
answered 10 hours ago
Barid Baran AcharyaBarid Baran Acharya
1,979613
" Telling " is a gerund here; it refers to the act of the speaker. Gerunds function like nouns but being born out of verbs retain verb like qualities of accepting objects or complements. A noun can have an attributive possessive adjective. A natural corollary to this proposition is that a gerund can be qualified by a possessive adjective as well. Hence WITHOUT MY TELLING.
answered 10 hours ago
Barid Baran AcharyaBarid Baran Acharya
1,979613
answered 10 hours ago
Barid Baran AcharyaBarid Baran Acharya
1,979613
answered 10 hours ago
Barid Baran AcharyaBarid Baran Acharya
1,979613
answered 10 hours ago
Barid Baran AcharyaBarid Baran Acharya
1,979613
1,979613
Well yes they accept objects or complements. But they also accept subjects. Which is why "without me telling him to" is perfectly grammatical English.
– RegDwigнt♦
10 hours ago
My thrust was to prove a point to the inquisitor and never for once I said the other incorrect. The other one is informal, at times sounds weird as here in the example— excuse me my non-native ears.
– Barid Baran Acharya
9 hours ago
It's the possessive that sounds weird in this example. And indeed in most examples I can think of where the gerund has an object and follows a without. Anyway, that's beside the point. If both X and Y are fine, then you have to say "both X and Y are fine". Saying "X is fine, hence X" is not saying that.
– RegDwigнt♦
9 hours ago
add a comment |
Well yes they accept objects or complements. But they also accept subjects. Which is why "without me telling him to" is perfectly grammatical English.
– RegDwigнt♦
10 hours ago
My thrust was to prove a point to the inquisitor and never for once I said the other incorrect. The other one is informal, at times sounds weird as here in the example— excuse me my non-native ears.
– Barid Baran Acharya
9 hours ago
It's the possessive that sounds weird in this example. And indeed in most examples I can think of where the gerund has an object and follows a without. Anyway, that's beside the point. If both X and Y are fine, then you have to say "both X and Y are fine". Saying "X is fine, hence X" is not saying that.
– RegDwigнt♦
9 hours ago
Well yes they accept objects or complements. But they also accept subjects. Which is why "without me telling him to" is perfectly grammatical English.
– RegDwigнt♦
10 hours ago
Well yes they accept objects or complements. But they also accept subjects. Which is why "without me telling him to" is perfectly grammatical English.
– RegDwigнt♦
10 hours ago
My thrust was to prove a point to the inquisitor and never for once I said the other incorrect. The other one is informal, at times sounds weird as here in the example— excuse me my non-native ears.
– Barid Baran Acharya
9 hours ago
My thrust was to prove a point to the inquisitor and never for once I said the other incorrect. The other one is informal, at times sounds weird as here in the example— excuse me my non-native ears.
– Barid Baran Acharya
9 hours ago
It's the possessive that sounds weird in this example. And indeed in most examples I can think of where the gerund has an object and follows a without. Anyway, that's beside the point. If both X and Y are fine, then you have to say "both X and Y are fine". Saying "X is fine, hence X" is not saying that.
– RegDwigнt♦
9 hours ago
It's the possessive that sounds weird in this example. And indeed in most examples I can think of where the gerund has an object and follows a without. Anyway, that's beside the point. If both X and Y are fine, then you have to say "both X and Y are fine". Saying "X is fine, hence X" is not saying that.
– RegDwigнt♦
9 hours ago
add a comment |
