Is “But, I later realized, have no car” grammatical?





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I was engaged in some informal but I hope grammatical conversation with a friend who is less fluent in English than me (so I didn't want to confuse them!). It went:





  • So why are you so upset?

  • You really want to know?

  • Sure!

  • Well, you know how I was telling you how I sold my car?

  • Yeah

  • I was excited about driving up to Manchester...

  • OK.

  • But, I later realized, have no car.




Is "But, I later realized, have no car" grammatical?



I think maybe, and with the following reason.



"But, I later realized, have no car"? sounds better than "But I later realized, have no car". I think the former sounds better due to the grammar, and one answer for why that is, is that it's grammatical (rather than, say, more rhetorical or I'm not interested in their reply).





I am concerned with the elided "I" in what would be the independent clause "have no car", and so I'm guessing it may be grammatical because in the latter the phrase "I later realized" is parenthesized (so that the conditional conjunction 'but' belongs to the independent clause "[I] have no car"), if that's not a misunderstanding.



Or perhaps it's because the conjunction 'but' in the former, used, example need not be read as set off with a comma.





The question seems a difficult one, as wikipedia says:




the dropping of pronouns is generally restricted to very informal
speech and certain fixed expressions, and the rules for their use are
complex and vary among dialects and register




I would be asking for BrSE, at least foremostly.










share|improve this question




















  • 5





    you can't elide the i

    – Toothrot
    5 hours ago






  • 4





    You are asking "why does A sound better than B?" when to me, they both sound ungrammatical, and neither is particularly better. So it seems really a matter of opinion.

    – Peter Shor
    5 hours ago








  • 2





    Why does lemon cake seem better than strawberry ice cream? This answer is a matter of opinion, because it only seems better to me.

    – Peter Shor
    4 hours ago








  • 1





    Please clarify who has no car.

    – Dan
    4 hours ago






  • 1





    Dropping pronoun is problematic because it makes unclear who has no car.

    – Dan
    4 hours ago


















0















I was engaged in some informal but I hope grammatical conversation with a friend who is less fluent in English than me (so I didn't want to confuse them!). It went:





  • So why are you so upset?

  • You really want to know?

  • Sure!

  • Well, you know how I was telling you how I sold my car?

  • Yeah

  • I was excited about driving up to Manchester...

  • OK.

  • But, I later realized, have no car.




Is "But, I later realized, have no car" grammatical?



I think maybe, and with the following reason.



"But, I later realized, have no car"? sounds better than "But I later realized, have no car". I think the former sounds better due to the grammar, and one answer for why that is, is that it's grammatical (rather than, say, more rhetorical or I'm not interested in their reply).





I am concerned with the elided "I" in what would be the independent clause "have no car", and so I'm guessing it may be grammatical because in the latter the phrase "I later realized" is parenthesized (so that the conditional conjunction 'but' belongs to the independent clause "[I] have no car"), if that's not a misunderstanding.



Or perhaps it's because the conjunction 'but' in the former, used, example need not be read as set off with a comma.





The question seems a difficult one, as wikipedia says:




the dropping of pronouns is generally restricted to very informal
speech and certain fixed expressions, and the rules for their use are
complex and vary among dialects and register




I would be asking for BrSE, at least foremostly.










share|improve this question




















  • 5





    you can't elide the i

    – Toothrot
    5 hours ago






  • 4





    You are asking "why does A sound better than B?" when to me, they both sound ungrammatical, and neither is particularly better. So it seems really a matter of opinion.

    – Peter Shor
    5 hours ago








  • 2





    Why does lemon cake seem better than strawberry ice cream? This answer is a matter of opinion, because it only seems better to me.

    – Peter Shor
    4 hours ago








  • 1





    Please clarify who has no car.

    – Dan
    4 hours ago






  • 1





    Dropping pronoun is problematic because it makes unclear who has no car.

    – Dan
    4 hours ago














0












0








0


2






I was engaged in some informal but I hope grammatical conversation with a friend who is less fluent in English than me (so I didn't want to confuse them!). It went:





  • So why are you so upset?

  • You really want to know?

  • Sure!

  • Well, you know how I was telling you how I sold my car?

  • Yeah

  • I was excited about driving up to Manchester...

  • OK.

  • But, I later realized, have no car.




Is "But, I later realized, have no car" grammatical?



I think maybe, and with the following reason.



"But, I later realized, have no car"? sounds better than "But I later realized, have no car". I think the former sounds better due to the grammar, and one answer for why that is, is that it's grammatical (rather than, say, more rhetorical or I'm not interested in their reply).





I am concerned with the elided "I" in what would be the independent clause "have no car", and so I'm guessing it may be grammatical because in the latter the phrase "I later realized" is parenthesized (so that the conditional conjunction 'but' belongs to the independent clause "[I] have no car"), if that's not a misunderstanding.



Or perhaps it's because the conjunction 'but' in the former, used, example need not be read as set off with a comma.





The question seems a difficult one, as wikipedia says:




the dropping of pronouns is generally restricted to very informal
speech and certain fixed expressions, and the rules for their use are
complex and vary among dialects and register




I would be asking for BrSE, at least foremostly.










share|improve this question
















I was engaged in some informal but I hope grammatical conversation with a friend who is less fluent in English than me (so I didn't want to confuse them!). It went:





  • So why are you so upset?

  • You really want to know?

  • Sure!

  • Well, you know how I was telling you how I sold my car?

  • Yeah

  • I was excited about driving up to Manchester...

  • OK.

  • But, I later realized, have no car.




Is "But, I later realized, have no car" grammatical?



I think maybe, and with the following reason.



"But, I later realized, have no car"? sounds better than "But I later realized, have no car". I think the former sounds better due to the grammar, and one answer for why that is, is that it's grammatical (rather than, say, more rhetorical or I'm not interested in their reply).





I am concerned with the elided "I" in what would be the independent clause "have no car", and so I'm guessing it may be grammatical because in the latter the phrase "I later realized" is parenthesized (so that the conditional conjunction 'but' belongs to the independent clause "[I] have no car"), if that's not a misunderstanding.



Or perhaps it's because the conjunction 'but' in the former, used, example need not be read as set off with a comma.





The question seems a difficult one, as wikipedia says:




the dropping of pronouns is generally restricted to very informal
speech and certain fixed expressions, and the rules for their use are
complex and vary among dialects and register




I would be asking for BrSE, at least foremostly.







commas pronouns pro-drop






share|improve this question















share|improve this question













share|improve this question




share|improve this question








edited 4 hours ago







user3293056

















asked 5 hours ago









user3293056user3293056

677719




677719








  • 5





    you can't elide the i

    – Toothrot
    5 hours ago






  • 4





    You are asking "why does A sound better than B?" when to me, they both sound ungrammatical, and neither is particularly better. So it seems really a matter of opinion.

    – Peter Shor
    5 hours ago








  • 2





    Why does lemon cake seem better than strawberry ice cream? This answer is a matter of opinion, because it only seems better to me.

    – Peter Shor
    4 hours ago








  • 1





    Please clarify who has no car.

    – Dan
    4 hours ago






  • 1





    Dropping pronoun is problematic because it makes unclear who has no car.

    – Dan
    4 hours ago














  • 5





    you can't elide the i

    – Toothrot
    5 hours ago






  • 4





    You are asking "why does A sound better than B?" when to me, they both sound ungrammatical, and neither is particularly better. So it seems really a matter of opinion.

    – Peter Shor
    5 hours ago








  • 2





    Why does lemon cake seem better than strawberry ice cream? This answer is a matter of opinion, because it only seems better to me.

    – Peter Shor
    4 hours ago








  • 1





    Please clarify who has no car.

    – Dan
    4 hours ago






  • 1





    Dropping pronoun is problematic because it makes unclear who has no car.

    – Dan
    4 hours ago








5




5





you can't elide the i

– Toothrot
5 hours ago





you can't elide the i

– Toothrot
5 hours ago




4




4





You are asking "why does A sound better than B?" when to me, they both sound ungrammatical, and neither is particularly better. So it seems really a matter of opinion.

– Peter Shor
5 hours ago







You are asking "why does A sound better than B?" when to me, they both sound ungrammatical, and neither is particularly better. So it seems really a matter of opinion.

– Peter Shor
5 hours ago






2




2





Why does lemon cake seem better than strawberry ice cream? This answer is a matter of opinion, because it only seems better to me.

– Peter Shor
4 hours ago







Why does lemon cake seem better than strawberry ice cream? This answer is a matter of opinion, because it only seems better to me.

– Peter Shor
4 hours ago






1




1





Please clarify who has no car.

– Dan
4 hours ago





Please clarify who has no car.

– Dan
4 hours ago




1




1





Dropping pronoun is problematic because it makes unclear who has no car.

– Dan
4 hours ago





Dropping pronoun is problematic because it makes unclear who has no car.

– Dan
4 hours ago










3 Answers
3






active

oldest

votes


















5















I was excited about driving up to Manchester...



OK.



But, I later realized, have no car.




If we consider only the last line then, after removing the "parenthetical clause", we get "But have no car." This is clearly non-grammatical (though comprehensible).



However, if we consider the first line, and regard the two lines as simply being a single (though disjointed) sentence, we get "I was excited about driving up to Manchester but have no car." This is valid syntax and semantics.



Often in speech a perfectly valid sentence can get disjointed in this fashion, especially when the listener interjects an "OK" or some such to acknowledge his comprehension. Within reason this doesn't affect the validity of the overall statement.






share|improve this answer


























  • thank you for your answer, which, along with dan's comment, was helpful... i am still concerned that the your claim "is clearly non-grammatical" cites no-one. but feel that my question is answered now.

    – user3293056
    4 hours ago











  • and thanks for noticing how the interjection was working!!

    – user3293056
    4 hours ago



















1














I am willing to bet you imagined something like below but didn't type it out as such because is quite esoteric outside of train-of-thought writing (disclaimer: I am including the book here merely as an example):




"But I -- I later realized -- have no car."




There should be 2 "I"s; it is a interjected independent clause, the subject does not carry over.






share|improve this answer
























  • no, not at all! see my edit. anyway, you didn't address my use of 'pro-drop', so i'm concerned that your answer isn't even an answer to my question (which must still be unclear?)

    – user3293056
    4 hours ago



















1














Why does it seem okay with the comma, but not without? When you have two parallel clauses with the same subject, you can drop the subject from the second one.




I had a book I was reading, but left it on the airplane.

I was excited about driving up to Manchester, but have no car.




When you add an interjection, it's still grammatical.




I was excited about driving up to Manchester but, I later realized, have no car.




Now, in dialog, when somebody interrupts that sentence, you still might be able to argue that it's grammatical:




I was excited about driving up to Manchester ...

OK

... but, I later realized, have no car.




On the other hand, if you have a main clause and a dependent clause with the same subject, you cannot leave the subject off the dependent clause. The following are ungrammatical. (Asterisks indicate ungrammaticality.)




*I told him would drive him home.

*I realized have no car.




So if I later realized is not an interjection (which it isn't unless you put a comma after the but), the whole thing is ungrammatical:




*I was excited about driving up to Manchester, but I later realized, have no car.




Without the first part of the interrupted sentence, "I was excited about driving up to Manchester," the second half of the interrupted sentence, "but, I realized, have no car" is ungrammatical whether or not there is a comma after the but.






share|improve this answer


























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    3 Answers
    3






    active

    oldest

    votes








    3 Answers
    3






    active

    oldest

    votes









    active

    oldest

    votes






    active

    oldest

    votes









    5















    I was excited about driving up to Manchester...



    OK.



    But, I later realized, have no car.




    If we consider only the last line then, after removing the "parenthetical clause", we get "But have no car." This is clearly non-grammatical (though comprehensible).



    However, if we consider the first line, and regard the two lines as simply being a single (though disjointed) sentence, we get "I was excited about driving up to Manchester but have no car." This is valid syntax and semantics.



    Often in speech a perfectly valid sentence can get disjointed in this fashion, especially when the listener interjects an "OK" or some such to acknowledge his comprehension. Within reason this doesn't affect the validity of the overall statement.






    share|improve this answer


























    • thank you for your answer, which, along with dan's comment, was helpful... i am still concerned that the your claim "is clearly non-grammatical" cites no-one. but feel that my question is answered now.

      – user3293056
      4 hours ago











    • and thanks for noticing how the interjection was working!!

      – user3293056
      4 hours ago
















    5















    I was excited about driving up to Manchester...



    OK.



    But, I later realized, have no car.




    If we consider only the last line then, after removing the "parenthetical clause", we get "But have no car." This is clearly non-grammatical (though comprehensible).



    However, if we consider the first line, and regard the two lines as simply being a single (though disjointed) sentence, we get "I was excited about driving up to Manchester but have no car." This is valid syntax and semantics.



    Often in speech a perfectly valid sentence can get disjointed in this fashion, especially when the listener interjects an "OK" or some such to acknowledge his comprehension. Within reason this doesn't affect the validity of the overall statement.






    share|improve this answer


























    • thank you for your answer, which, along with dan's comment, was helpful... i am still concerned that the your claim "is clearly non-grammatical" cites no-one. but feel that my question is answered now.

      – user3293056
      4 hours ago











    • and thanks for noticing how the interjection was working!!

      – user3293056
      4 hours ago














    5












    5








    5








    I was excited about driving up to Manchester...



    OK.



    But, I later realized, have no car.




    If we consider only the last line then, after removing the "parenthetical clause", we get "But have no car." This is clearly non-grammatical (though comprehensible).



    However, if we consider the first line, and regard the two lines as simply being a single (though disjointed) sentence, we get "I was excited about driving up to Manchester but have no car." This is valid syntax and semantics.



    Often in speech a perfectly valid sentence can get disjointed in this fashion, especially when the listener interjects an "OK" or some such to acknowledge his comprehension. Within reason this doesn't affect the validity of the overall statement.






    share|improve this answer
















    I was excited about driving up to Manchester...



    OK.



    But, I later realized, have no car.




    If we consider only the last line then, after removing the "parenthetical clause", we get "But have no car." This is clearly non-grammatical (though comprehensible).



    However, if we consider the first line, and regard the two lines as simply being a single (though disjointed) sentence, we get "I was excited about driving up to Manchester but have no car." This is valid syntax and semantics.



    Often in speech a perfectly valid sentence can get disjointed in this fashion, especially when the listener interjects an "OK" or some such to acknowledge his comprehension. Within reason this doesn't affect the validity of the overall statement.







    share|improve this answer














    share|improve this answer



    share|improve this answer








    edited 2 hours ago









    Chappo

    3,02151427




    3,02151427










    answered 4 hours ago









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    • thank you for your answer, which, along with dan's comment, was helpful... i am still concerned that the your claim "is clearly non-grammatical" cites no-one. but feel that my question is answered now.

      – user3293056
      4 hours ago











    • and thanks for noticing how the interjection was working!!

      – user3293056
      4 hours ago



















    • thank you for your answer, which, along with dan's comment, was helpful... i am still concerned that the your claim "is clearly non-grammatical" cites no-one. but feel that my question is answered now.

      – user3293056
      4 hours ago











    • and thanks for noticing how the interjection was working!!

      – user3293056
      4 hours ago

















    thank you for your answer, which, along with dan's comment, was helpful... i am still concerned that the your claim "is clearly non-grammatical" cites no-one. but feel that my question is answered now.

    – user3293056
    4 hours ago





    thank you for your answer, which, along with dan's comment, was helpful... i am still concerned that the your claim "is clearly non-grammatical" cites no-one. but feel that my question is answered now.

    – user3293056
    4 hours ago













    and thanks for noticing how the interjection was working!!

    – user3293056
    4 hours ago





    and thanks for noticing how the interjection was working!!

    – user3293056
    4 hours ago













    1














    I am willing to bet you imagined something like below but didn't type it out as such because is quite esoteric outside of train-of-thought writing (disclaimer: I am including the book here merely as an example):




    "But I -- I later realized -- have no car."




    There should be 2 "I"s; it is a interjected independent clause, the subject does not carry over.






    share|improve this answer
























    • no, not at all! see my edit. anyway, you didn't address my use of 'pro-drop', so i'm concerned that your answer isn't even an answer to my question (which must still be unclear?)

      – user3293056
      4 hours ago
















    1














    I am willing to bet you imagined something like below but didn't type it out as such because is quite esoteric outside of train-of-thought writing (disclaimer: I am including the book here merely as an example):




    "But I -- I later realized -- have no car."




    There should be 2 "I"s; it is a interjected independent clause, the subject does not carry over.






    share|improve this answer
























    • no, not at all! see my edit. anyway, you didn't address my use of 'pro-drop', so i'm concerned that your answer isn't even an answer to my question (which must still be unclear?)

      – user3293056
      4 hours ago














    1












    1








    1







    I am willing to bet you imagined something like below but didn't type it out as such because is quite esoteric outside of train-of-thought writing (disclaimer: I am including the book here merely as an example):




    "But I -- I later realized -- have no car."




    There should be 2 "I"s; it is a interjected independent clause, the subject does not carry over.






    share|improve this answer













    I am willing to bet you imagined something like below but didn't type it out as such because is quite esoteric outside of train-of-thought writing (disclaimer: I am including the book here merely as an example):




    "But I -- I later realized -- have no car."




    There should be 2 "I"s; it is a interjected independent clause, the subject does not carry over.







    share|improve this answer












    share|improve this answer



    share|improve this answer










    answered 4 hours ago









    CarlyCarly

    1,678213




    1,678213













    • no, not at all! see my edit. anyway, you didn't address my use of 'pro-drop', so i'm concerned that your answer isn't even an answer to my question (which must still be unclear?)

      – user3293056
      4 hours ago



















    • no, not at all! see my edit. anyway, you didn't address my use of 'pro-drop', so i'm concerned that your answer isn't even an answer to my question (which must still be unclear?)

      – user3293056
      4 hours ago

















    no, not at all! see my edit. anyway, you didn't address my use of 'pro-drop', so i'm concerned that your answer isn't even an answer to my question (which must still be unclear?)

    – user3293056
    4 hours ago





    no, not at all! see my edit. anyway, you didn't address my use of 'pro-drop', so i'm concerned that your answer isn't even an answer to my question (which must still be unclear?)

    – user3293056
    4 hours ago











    1














    Why does it seem okay with the comma, but not without? When you have two parallel clauses with the same subject, you can drop the subject from the second one.




    I had a book I was reading, but left it on the airplane.

    I was excited about driving up to Manchester, but have no car.




    When you add an interjection, it's still grammatical.




    I was excited about driving up to Manchester but, I later realized, have no car.




    Now, in dialog, when somebody interrupts that sentence, you still might be able to argue that it's grammatical:




    I was excited about driving up to Manchester ...

    OK

    ... but, I later realized, have no car.




    On the other hand, if you have a main clause and a dependent clause with the same subject, you cannot leave the subject off the dependent clause. The following are ungrammatical. (Asterisks indicate ungrammaticality.)




    *I told him would drive him home.

    *I realized have no car.




    So if I later realized is not an interjection (which it isn't unless you put a comma after the but), the whole thing is ungrammatical:




    *I was excited about driving up to Manchester, but I later realized, have no car.




    Without the first part of the interrupted sentence, "I was excited about driving up to Manchester," the second half of the interrupted sentence, "but, I realized, have no car" is ungrammatical whether or not there is a comma after the but.






    share|improve this answer






























      1














      Why does it seem okay with the comma, but not without? When you have two parallel clauses with the same subject, you can drop the subject from the second one.




      I had a book I was reading, but left it on the airplane.

      I was excited about driving up to Manchester, but have no car.




      When you add an interjection, it's still grammatical.




      I was excited about driving up to Manchester but, I later realized, have no car.




      Now, in dialog, when somebody interrupts that sentence, you still might be able to argue that it's grammatical:




      I was excited about driving up to Manchester ...

      OK

      ... but, I later realized, have no car.




      On the other hand, if you have a main clause and a dependent clause with the same subject, you cannot leave the subject off the dependent clause. The following are ungrammatical. (Asterisks indicate ungrammaticality.)




      *I told him would drive him home.

      *I realized have no car.




      So if I later realized is not an interjection (which it isn't unless you put a comma after the but), the whole thing is ungrammatical:




      *I was excited about driving up to Manchester, but I later realized, have no car.




      Without the first part of the interrupted sentence, "I was excited about driving up to Manchester," the second half of the interrupted sentence, "but, I realized, have no car" is ungrammatical whether or not there is a comma after the but.






      share|improve this answer




























        1












        1








        1







        Why does it seem okay with the comma, but not without? When you have two parallel clauses with the same subject, you can drop the subject from the second one.




        I had a book I was reading, but left it on the airplane.

        I was excited about driving up to Manchester, but have no car.




        When you add an interjection, it's still grammatical.




        I was excited about driving up to Manchester but, I later realized, have no car.




        Now, in dialog, when somebody interrupts that sentence, you still might be able to argue that it's grammatical:




        I was excited about driving up to Manchester ...

        OK

        ... but, I later realized, have no car.




        On the other hand, if you have a main clause and a dependent clause with the same subject, you cannot leave the subject off the dependent clause. The following are ungrammatical. (Asterisks indicate ungrammaticality.)




        *I told him would drive him home.

        *I realized have no car.




        So if I later realized is not an interjection (which it isn't unless you put a comma after the but), the whole thing is ungrammatical:




        *I was excited about driving up to Manchester, but I later realized, have no car.




        Without the first part of the interrupted sentence, "I was excited about driving up to Manchester," the second half of the interrupted sentence, "but, I realized, have no car" is ungrammatical whether or not there is a comma after the but.






        share|improve this answer















        Why does it seem okay with the comma, but not without? When you have two parallel clauses with the same subject, you can drop the subject from the second one.




        I had a book I was reading, but left it on the airplane.

        I was excited about driving up to Manchester, but have no car.




        When you add an interjection, it's still grammatical.




        I was excited about driving up to Manchester but, I later realized, have no car.




        Now, in dialog, when somebody interrupts that sentence, you still might be able to argue that it's grammatical:




        I was excited about driving up to Manchester ...

        OK

        ... but, I later realized, have no car.




        On the other hand, if you have a main clause and a dependent clause with the same subject, you cannot leave the subject off the dependent clause. The following are ungrammatical. (Asterisks indicate ungrammaticality.)




        *I told him would drive him home.

        *I realized have no car.




        So if I later realized is not an interjection (which it isn't unless you put a comma after the but), the whole thing is ungrammatical:




        *I was excited about driving up to Manchester, but I later realized, have no car.




        Without the first part of the interrupted sentence, "I was excited about driving up to Manchester," the second half of the interrupted sentence, "but, I realized, have no car" is ungrammatical whether or not there is a comma after the but.







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        edited 3 hours ago

























        answered 3 hours ago









        Peter Shor Peter Shor

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