What does this complex statement of grammar components mean?












0















The following, from John Barth's "The End of the Road", provides a complex grammatical formulation and what I presume is an example sentence that satisfies the requirements of that formulation:




" ... it gives a man a great sense of lucidity and well-being, if not
downright formidability, to be able not only to say, but to understand
perfectly, that predicate complements of infinitives of copulative
verbs without expressed subjects go into the nominative case, whereas
predicate complements of infinitives of copulative verbs with
expressed subjects go into the objective case.
I made this
observation to my assemblage of young scholars and concluded
triumphantly, "I was thought to be he, but I thought John to be
him."




I've searched websites, written to Mr. Barth and William Safire, scanned bookstore shelves, and buttonholed likely prospects in search of a grammar text that would explain this, but to no avail. Note, I'm not looking for an analysis of the text (i.e. literary criticism), but rather, an explanation of the rule of grammar that Barth expresses.



What does this complex prescription of grammar mean in simple terms, and how does the triumphant observation satisfy it?










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  • Hi Rabbit, welcome to EL&U. Asking for a recommendation on grammar resources is off-topic, but look here for options. To avoid the closure of a genuinely interesting question, I've taken the liberty of editing it; if you disagree with my changes, you can roll them back. However, I recommend you add your own edit to explain exactly what you find most confusing. See also How to Ask for further guidance. :-)

    – Chappo
    3 mins ago


















0















The following, from John Barth's "The End of the Road", provides a complex grammatical formulation and what I presume is an example sentence that satisfies the requirements of that formulation:




" ... it gives a man a great sense of lucidity and well-being, if not
downright formidability, to be able not only to say, but to understand
perfectly, that predicate complements of infinitives of copulative
verbs without expressed subjects go into the nominative case, whereas
predicate complements of infinitives of copulative verbs with
expressed subjects go into the objective case.
I made this
observation to my assemblage of young scholars and concluded
triumphantly, "I was thought to be he, but I thought John to be
him."




I've searched websites, written to Mr. Barth and William Safire, scanned bookstore shelves, and buttonholed likely prospects in search of a grammar text that would explain this, but to no avail. Note, I'm not looking for an analysis of the text (i.e. literary criticism), but rather, an explanation of the rule of grammar that Barth expresses.



What does this complex prescription of grammar mean in simple terms, and how does the triumphant observation satisfy it?










share|improve this question









New contributor




Rabbit is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.





















  • Hi Rabbit, welcome to EL&U. Asking for a recommendation on grammar resources is off-topic, but look here for options. To avoid the closure of a genuinely interesting question, I've taken the liberty of editing it; if you disagree with my changes, you can roll them back. However, I recommend you add your own edit to explain exactly what you find most confusing. See also How to Ask for further guidance. :-)

    – Chappo
    3 mins ago
















0












0








0








The following, from John Barth's "The End of the Road", provides a complex grammatical formulation and what I presume is an example sentence that satisfies the requirements of that formulation:




" ... it gives a man a great sense of lucidity and well-being, if not
downright formidability, to be able not only to say, but to understand
perfectly, that predicate complements of infinitives of copulative
verbs without expressed subjects go into the nominative case, whereas
predicate complements of infinitives of copulative verbs with
expressed subjects go into the objective case.
I made this
observation to my assemblage of young scholars and concluded
triumphantly, "I was thought to be he, but I thought John to be
him."




I've searched websites, written to Mr. Barth and William Safire, scanned bookstore shelves, and buttonholed likely prospects in search of a grammar text that would explain this, but to no avail. Note, I'm not looking for an analysis of the text (i.e. literary criticism), but rather, an explanation of the rule of grammar that Barth expresses.



What does this complex prescription of grammar mean in simple terms, and how does the triumphant observation satisfy it?










share|improve this question









New contributor




Rabbit is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.












The following, from John Barth's "The End of the Road", provides a complex grammatical formulation and what I presume is an example sentence that satisfies the requirements of that formulation:




" ... it gives a man a great sense of lucidity and well-being, if not
downright formidability, to be able not only to say, but to understand
perfectly, that predicate complements of infinitives of copulative
verbs without expressed subjects go into the nominative case, whereas
predicate complements of infinitives of copulative verbs with
expressed subjects go into the objective case.
I made this
observation to my assemblage of young scholars and concluded
triumphantly, "I was thought to be he, but I thought John to be
him."




I've searched websites, written to Mr. Barth and William Safire, scanned bookstore shelves, and buttonholed likely prospects in search of a grammar text that would explain this, but to no avail. Note, I'm not looking for an analysis of the text (i.e. literary criticism), but rather, an explanation of the rule of grammar that Barth expresses.



What does this complex prescription of grammar mean in simple terms, and how does the triumphant observation satisfy it?







prescriptive-grammar






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Rabbit is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.











share|improve this question









New contributor




Rabbit is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.









share|improve this question




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edited 4 mins ago









Chappo

2,72851225




2,72851225






New contributor




Rabbit is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.









asked 3 hours ago









RabbitRabbit

1012




1012




New contributor




Rabbit is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
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New contributor





Rabbit is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.






Rabbit is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.













  • Hi Rabbit, welcome to EL&U. Asking for a recommendation on grammar resources is off-topic, but look here for options. To avoid the closure of a genuinely interesting question, I've taken the liberty of editing it; if you disagree with my changes, you can roll them back. However, I recommend you add your own edit to explain exactly what you find most confusing. See also How to Ask for further guidance. :-)

    – Chappo
    3 mins ago





















  • Hi Rabbit, welcome to EL&U. Asking for a recommendation on grammar resources is off-topic, but look here for options. To avoid the closure of a genuinely interesting question, I've taken the liberty of editing it; if you disagree with my changes, you can roll them back. However, I recommend you add your own edit to explain exactly what you find most confusing. See also How to Ask for further guidance. :-)

    – Chappo
    3 mins ago



















Hi Rabbit, welcome to EL&U. Asking for a recommendation on grammar resources is off-topic, but look here for options. To avoid the closure of a genuinely interesting question, I've taken the liberty of editing it; if you disagree with my changes, you can roll them back. However, I recommend you add your own edit to explain exactly what you find most confusing. See also How to Ask for further guidance. :-)

– Chappo
3 mins ago







Hi Rabbit, welcome to EL&U. Asking for a recommendation on grammar resources is off-topic, but look here for options. To avoid the closure of a genuinely interesting question, I've taken the liberty of editing it; if you disagree with my changes, you can roll them back. However, I recommend you add your own edit to explain exactly what you find most confusing. See also How to Ask for further guidance. :-)

– Chappo
3 mins ago












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