Is it appropriate to use short form of “have” ('ve) when it means possession?
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I feel uncomfortable saying sentences like the following:
- "I've a car" instead of "I have a car"
- "They've a great time" instead of "They have a great time"
- "He's a pen" instead of "He has a pen"
- etc
I ask this because I read this sort of thing in a book.
Are they correct? And what is the rule? Can you use such forms in a formal setting?
verbs contractions auxiliary-verbs
edited Sep 21 '13 at 18:16
RegDwigнt♦
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asked Aug 5 '10 at 19:42
serg
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I feel uncomfortable saying sentences like the following:
- "I've a car" instead of "I have a car"
- "They've a great time" instead of "They have a great time"
- "He's a pen" instead of "He has a pen"
- etc
I ask this because I read this sort of thing in a book.
Are they correct? And what is the rule? Can you use such forms in a formal setting?
verbs contractions auxiliary-verbs
edited Sep 21 '13 at 18:16
RegDwigнt♦
82.4k31280376
asked Aug 5 '10 at 19:42
serg
2,23072823
4
@serg555: Would you expect anything less on a site for grammar enthusiasts!?
– Daniel LeCheminant
Aug 5 '10 at 20:12
I think both of them are correct
– misho
Sep 14 '10 at 12:22
3
I've a car sounds British.
– OneProton
Sep 14 '10 at 17:57
11
He's a pen, sounds more likeHe is a pen.
– Joe D
Sep 23 '10 at 15:49
Hmm. So We've a long way to go in the UK, before we reach US linguistic standards? I know Americans favour inserting got there, but is that a closely-observed rule?
– FumbleFingers
May 21 '11 at 18:01
|
show 3 more comments
up vote
50
down vote
favorite
up vote
50
down vote
favorite
I feel uncomfortable saying sentences like the following:
- "I've a car" instead of "I have a car"
- "They've a great time" instead of "They have a great time"
- "He's a pen" instead of "He has a pen"
- etc
I ask this because I read this sort of thing in a book.
Are they correct? And what is the rule? Can you use such forms in a formal setting?
verbs contractions auxiliary-verbs
edited Sep 21 '13 at 18:16
RegDwigнt♦
82.4k31280376
asked Aug 5 '10 at 19:42
serg
2,23072823
I feel uncomfortable saying sentences like the following:
- "I've a car" instead of "I have a car"
- "They've a great time" instead of "They have a great time"
- "He's a pen" instead of "He has a pen"
- etc
I ask this because I read this sort of thing in a book.
Are they correct? And what is the rule? Can you use such forms in a formal setting?
verbs contractions auxiliary-verbs
verbs contractions auxiliary-verbs
edited Sep 21 '13 at 18:16
RegDwigнt♦
82.4k31280376
asked Aug 5 '10 at 19:42
serg
2,23072823
edited Sep 21 '13 at 18:16
RegDwigнt♦
82.4k31280376
asked Aug 5 '10 at 19:42
serg
2,23072823
edited Sep 21 '13 at 18:16
RegDwigнt♦
82.4k31280376
edited Sep 21 '13 at 18:16
RegDwigнt♦
82.4k31280376
edited Sep 21 '13 at 18:16
RegDwigнt♦
82.4k31280376
82.4k31280376
asked Aug 5 '10 at 19:42
serg
2,23072823
asked Aug 5 '10 at 19:42
serg
2,23072823
asked Aug 5 '10 at 19:42
serg
2,23072823
2,23072823
4
@serg555: Would you expect anything less on a site for grammar enthusiasts!?
– Daniel LeCheminant
Aug 5 '10 at 20:12
I think both of them are correct
– misho
Sep 14 '10 at 12:22
3
I've a car sounds British.
– OneProton
Sep 14 '10 at 17:57
11
He's a pen, sounds more likeHe is a pen.
– Joe D
Sep 23 '10 at 15:49
Hmm. So We've a long way to go in the UK, before we reach US linguistic standards? I know Americans favour inserting got there, but is that a closely-observed rule?
– FumbleFingers
May 21 '11 at 18:01
|
show 3 more comments
4
@serg555: Would you expect anything less on a site for grammar enthusiasts!?
– Daniel LeCheminant
Aug 5 '10 at 20:12
I think both of them are correct
– misho
Sep 14 '10 at 12:22
3
I've a car sounds British.
– OneProton
Sep 14 '10 at 17:57
11
He's a pen, sounds more likeHe is a pen.
– Joe D
Sep 23 '10 at 15:49
Hmm. So We've a long way to go in the UK, before we reach US linguistic standards? I know Americans favour inserting got there, but is that a closely-observed rule?
– FumbleFingers
May 21 '11 at 18:01
4
4
@serg555: Would you expect anything less on a site for grammar enthusiasts!?
– Daniel LeCheminant
Aug 5 '10 at 20:12
@serg555: Would you expect anything less on a site for grammar enthusiasts!?
– Daniel LeCheminant
Aug 5 '10 at 20:12
I think both of them are correct
– misho
Sep 14 '10 at 12:22
I think both of them are correct
– misho
Sep 14 '10 at 12:22
3
3
I've a car sounds British.
– OneProton
Sep 14 '10 at 17:57
I've a car sounds British.
– OneProton
Sep 14 '10 at 17:57
11
11
He's a pen, sounds more like He is a pen.– Joe D
Sep 23 '10 at 15:49
He's a pen, sounds more like He is a pen.– Joe D
Sep 23 '10 at 15:49
Hmm. So We've a long way to go in the UK, before we reach US linguistic standards? I know Americans favour inserting got there, but is that a closely-observed rule?
– FumbleFingers
May 21 '11 at 18:01
Hmm. So We've a long way to go in the UK, before we reach US linguistic standards? I know Americans favour inserting got there, but is that a closely-observed rule?
– FumbleFingers
May 21 '11 at 18:01
|
show 3 more comments
8 Answers
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votes
up vote
23
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accepted
To an American ear, it sounds awkward, but in British English, this is not uncommon. Ironically, a Brit will probably tell you that the correct form is "I have got a small dog".
answered Aug 5 '10 at 20:13
Peter Eisentraut
2,85711620
2
So the speakers in America don't use "I have got a small dog" at all?
– Martin Vseticka
Aug 5 '10 at 20:23
12
@Marty: Generally, no, I'd say. You're much more likely to hear either "I have a small dog" (which is what's regarded as "correct") or "I've got a small dog".
– Adam Robinson
Aug 5 '10 at 20:26
I've never heardI'veused this way, and I've been trying to notice this sort of thing since I moved to London. I've heardI've gotmany times though and I'd regard that as "correct".
– configurator
Sep 29 '10 at 3:13
1
@configurator: It might actually be more of a written thing. Newspapers and such use it quite a bit. In speech, when you talk about what you have, you probably often use a bit of emphasis somewhere, so the contraction doesn't come into play very clearly.
– Peter Eisentraut
Sep 29 '10 at 10:53
8
Americans say I’ve got all the time. Here are some things Americans have got: a secret; your back; skills; the power.
– Jason Orendorff
Oct 18 '11 at 22:04
|
show 6 more comments
up vote
23
down vote
This is definitely an American English/British English thing, as you can't do it in American English but you can in British English.
In American English, you can't contract "have" if you are using it as a plain (not a "helping" or "auxiliary") verb. "I've a dog" and "They've a great time" are not grammatical in American English.
There are a number of other restrictions on contractions of "have" besides the one you cite. For example, you can't use contracted "have" followed by "not": "I've not been there" is not grammatical in American English even though "I've been there" is—if you want to contract, you have to say "I haven't been there".
I discussed this in a question about I’ven’t.
edited Apr 13 '17 at 12:38
Community♦
1
answered Sep 14 '10 at 17:26
nohat♦
59.5k12165235
2
Hm, I don't quite see where's the authority behind the assertion in this answer.
– Pacerier
Nov 5 '15 at 13:49
1
Also, I'm an American English speaker and I use "I've not" in conversation...
– KutuluMike
Oct 14 '16 at 12:38
add a comment |
up vote
16
down vote
I think what you feel uncomfortable with is contraction of "have" as a main verb. When it's an auxiliary verb in, say, a perfect, contraction feels fine:
I've had a car before.
But contraction of main verb "have" meaning to own or possess feels weirder.
?And I've a car right now.
However, I have a feeling that people will contract main verb have in British English, but take that with a grain of salt. Americans faced with some kind of strange usage are far too willing to blame it on British English.
answered Sep 14 '10 at 12:25
JoFrhwld
1,5441014
5
You are correct this is a British English thing. Contraction of non-auxiliary have is possible in British English but not in American English.
– nohat♦
Sep 14 '10 at 17:27
2
@nohat: agreed - though only in some regions (as a former Londoner, I would never use "I've" in that context). You also see it in older literature.
– Steve Melnikoff
Sep 14 '10 at 19:55
In my neck of the woods, a parent might well say I've a few things to say to you, young lady! to an to a recalcitrant teenage daughter.
– FumbleFingers
Jul 20 '11 at 18:01
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up vote
7
down vote
I think "I've a car" is fine, but unusual on its own: as part of a longer sentence it's unexceptionable: "I've a car in the garage".
I suspect this is for prosodic reasons: "I've a car" has no word you can stress, other than "car", so people tend to change it to either "I have a car" or "I've got a car".
The other case is different: I can't think of any examples where I would expect to find "he's a pen", though I would rate it as perfectly grammatical.
answered Sep 14 '10 at 12:38
Colin Fine
62.1k167157
2
Again, as part of a larger construction, '... he's a pen that cost over 300 pounds' would be acceptable colloquially in the UK. These contractions wouldn't be used in sentence- or sentence-fragment-terminal position.
– Edwin Ashworth
May 29 '15 at 9:01
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up vote
3
down vote
It is rarely appropriate to use contractions in a formal writing environment.
I've heard the first construction in speech, mainly British English, but not the second.
answered Aug 5 '10 at 19:49
Michael Scott Shappe
87275
As demonstrated in your second sentence!
– Alan Hogue
Aug 5 '10 at 22:34
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3
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They are both strictly correct but both slightly inelegant. The third especially could be confused with "He is a pen"
Some people like to avoid contractions like that in formal writing, but most people probably won't mind (or even notice).
It's probably wise to favour the contraction if you want to emphasise another part of the sentence: "I've never been so insulted!"
edited May 16 '14 at 18:18
yoozer8
6,76073978
answered Sep 14 '10 at 12:31
Mark Pim
1395
17
I'd go further and say that "He's a pen" is ALWAYS interpreted as "He IS a pen".
– Mr. Shiny and New 安宇
Sep 14 '10 at 14:02
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3
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"I've" seems fairly normal to me as British (or at least Scottish) English, and is completely unambiguous. I don't think this "he's" would ever be understood as "he has" rather than "he is".
edited yesterday
Artyom Lugovoy
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answered Mar 8 '11 at 13:38
neil
1,740913
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Technically, there's nothing wrong with it, although Uncle Mikey is correct that it's rarely appropriate to use contractions in formal writing.
The only reason the second one seems strange is because most people would say "They're having a great time," I suppose because they're in the middle of having it. I have said, though, "I'd a great time..." I just happen to speak too quickly.:)
I also say "I've got..." rather than "I have." When I'm not speaking incorrectly, I generally just say "I've." So, it's not just a British thing.
answered Aug 5 '10 at 20:23
kitukwfyer
3,5801920
Any chance of an explanation. I'm not sure what exactly is wrong with my answer, and I'd like to.
– kitukwfyer
Aug 5 '10 at 22:39
I didn't downvote, but my guess is that someone disagrees with your claim that "there's nothing wrong with it".
– nohat♦
Aug 6 '10 at 4:27
That might just be it! Probably should have thought of that.
– kitukwfyer
Aug 6 '10 at 7:18
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protected by RegDwigнt♦ May 22 '11 at 12:26
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8 Answers
8
active
oldest
votes
8 Answers
8
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
up vote
23
down vote
accepted
To an American ear, it sounds awkward, but in British English, this is not uncommon. Ironically, a Brit will probably tell you that the correct form is "I have got a small dog".
answered Aug 5 '10 at 20:13
Peter Eisentraut
2,85711620
2
So the speakers in America don't use "I have got a small dog" at all?
– Martin Vseticka
Aug 5 '10 at 20:23
12
@Marty: Generally, no, I'd say. You're much more likely to hear either "I have a small dog" (which is what's regarded as "correct") or "I've got a small dog".
– Adam Robinson
Aug 5 '10 at 20:26
I've never heardI'veused this way, and I've been trying to notice this sort of thing since I moved to London. I've heardI've gotmany times though and I'd regard that as "correct".
– configurator
Sep 29 '10 at 3:13
1
@configurator: It might actually be more of a written thing. Newspapers and such use it quite a bit. In speech, when you talk about what you have, you probably often use a bit of emphasis somewhere, so the contraction doesn't come into play very clearly.
– Peter Eisentraut
Sep 29 '10 at 10:53
8
Americans say I’ve got all the time. Here are some things Americans have got: a secret; your back; skills; the power.
– Jason Orendorff
Oct 18 '11 at 22:04
|
show 6 more comments
up vote
23
down vote
accepted
To an American ear, it sounds awkward, but in British English, this is not uncommon. Ironically, a Brit will probably tell you that the correct form is "I have got a small dog".
answered Aug 5 '10 at 20:13
Peter Eisentraut
2,85711620
2
So the speakers in America don't use "I have got a small dog" at all?
– Martin Vseticka
Aug 5 '10 at 20:23
12
@Marty: Generally, no, I'd say. You're much more likely to hear either "I have a small dog" (which is what's regarded as "correct") or "I've got a small dog".
– Adam Robinson
Aug 5 '10 at 20:26
I've never heardI'veused this way, and I've been trying to notice this sort of thing since I moved to London. I've heardI've gotmany times though and I'd regard that as "correct".
– configurator
Sep 29 '10 at 3:13
1
@configurator: It might actually be more of a written thing. Newspapers and such use it quite a bit. In speech, when you talk about what you have, you probably often use a bit of emphasis somewhere, so the contraction doesn't come into play very clearly.
– Peter Eisentraut
Sep 29 '10 at 10:53
8
Americans say I’ve got all the time. Here are some things Americans have got: a secret; your back; skills; the power.
– Jason Orendorff
Oct 18 '11 at 22:04
|
show 6 more comments
up vote
23
down vote
accepted
up vote
23
down vote
accepted
To an American ear, it sounds awkward, but in British English, this is not uncommon. Ironically, a Brit will probably tell you that the correct form is "I have got a small dog".
answered Aug 5 '10 at 20:13
Peter Eisentraut
2,85711620
To an American ear, it sounds awkward, but in British English, this is not uncommon. Ironically, a Brit will probably tell you that the correct form is "I have got a small dog".
answered Aug 5 '10 at 20:13
Peter Eisentraut
2,85711620
answered Aug 5 '10 at 20:13
Peter Eisentraut
2,85711620
answered Aug 5 '10 at 20:13
Peter Eisentraut
2,85711620
answered Aug 5 '10 at 20:13
Peter Eisentraut
2,85711620
2,85711620
2
So the speakers in America don't use "I have got a small dog" at all?
– Martin Vseticka
Aug 5 '10 at 20:23
12
@Marty: Generally, no, I'd say. You're much more likely to hear either "I have a small dog" (which is what's regarded as "correct") or "I've got a small dog".
– Adam Robinson
Aug 5 '10 at 20:26
I've never heardI'veused this way, and I've been trying to notice this sort of thing since I moved to London. I've heardI've gotmany times though and I'd regard that as "correct".
– configurator
Sep 29 '10 at 3:13
1
@configurator: It might actually be more of a written thing. Newspapers and such use it quite a bit. In speech, when you talk about what you have, you probably often use a bit of emphasis somewhere, so the contraction doesn't come into play very clearly.
– Peter Eisentraut
Sep 29 '10 at 10:53
8
Americans say I’ve got all the time. Here are some things Americans have got: a secret; your back; skills; the power.
– Jason Orendorff
Oct 18 '11 at 22:04
|
show 6 more comments
2
So the speakers in America don't use "I have got a small dog" at all?
– Martin Vseticka
Aug 5 '10 at 20:23
12
@Marty: Generally, no, I'd say. You're much more likely to hear either "I have a small dog" (which is what's regarded as "correct") or "I've got a small dog".
– Adam Robinson
Aug 5 '10 at 20:26
I've never heardI'veused this way, and I've been trying to notice this sort of thing since I moved to London. I've heardI've gotmany times though and I'd regard that as "correct".
– configurator
Sep 29 '10 at 3:13
1
@configurator: It might actually be more of a written thing. Newspapers and such use it quite a bit. In speech, when you talk about what you have, you probably often use a bit of emphasis somewhere, so the contraction doesn't come into play very clearly.
– Peter Eisentraut
Sep 29 '10 at 10:53
8
Americans say I’ve got all the time. Here are some things Americans have got: a secret; your back; skills; the power.
– Jason Orendorff
Oct 18 '11 at 22:04
2
2
So the speakers in America don't use "I have got a small dog" at all?
– Martin Vseticka
Aug 5 '10 at 20:23
So the speakers in America don't use "I have got a small dog" at all?
– Martin Vseticka
Aug 5 '10 at 20:23
12
12
@Marty: Generally, no, I'd say. You're much more likely to hear either "I have a small dog" (which is what's regarded as "correct") or "I've got a small dog".
– Adam Robinson
Aug 5 '10 at 20:26
@Marty: Generally, no, I'd say. You're much more likely to hear either "I have a small dog" (which is what's regarded as "correct") or "I've got a small dog".
– Adam Robinson
Aug 5 '10 at 20:26
I've never heard
I've used this way, and I've been trying to notice this sort of thing since I moved to London. I've heard I've got many times though and I'd regard that as "correct".– configurator
Sep 29 '10 at 3:13
I've never heard
I've used this way, and I've been trying to notice this sort of thing since I moved to London. I've heard I've got many times though and I'd regard that as "correct".– configurator
Sep 29 '10 at 3:13
1
1
@configurator: It might actually be more of a written thing. Newspapers and such use it quite a bit. In speech, when you talk about what you have, you probably often use a bit of emphasis somewhere, so the contraction doesn't come into play very clearly.
– Peter Eisentraut
Sep 29 '10 at 10:53
@configurator: It might actually be more of a written thing. Newspapers and such use it quite a bit. In speech, when you talk about what you have, you probably often use a bit of emphasis somewhere, so the contraction doesn't come into play very clearly.
– Peter Eisentraut
Sep 29 '10 at 10:53
8
8
Americans say I’ve got all the time. Here are some things Americans have got: a secret; your back; skills; the power.
– Jason Orendorff
Oct 18 '11 at 22:04
Americans say I’ve got all the time. Here are some things Americans have got: a secret; your back; skills; the power.
– Jason Orendorff
Oct 18 '11 at 22:04
|
show 6 more comments
up vote
23
down vote
This is definitely an American English/British English thing, as you can't do it in American English but you can in British English.
In American English, you can't contract "have" if you are using it as a plain (not a "helping" or "auxiliary") verb. "I've a dog" and "They've a great time" are not grammatical in American English.
There are a number of other restrictions on contractions of "have" besides the one you cite. For example, you can't use contracted "have" followed by "not": "I've not been there" is not grammatical in American English even though "I've been there" is—if you want to contract, you have to say "I haven't been there".
I discussed this in a question about I’ven’t.
edited Apr 13 '17 at 12:38
Community♦
1
answered Sep 14 '10 at 17:26
nohat♦
59.5k12165235
2
Hm, I don't quite see where's the authority behind the assertion in this answer.
– Pacerier
Nov 5 '15 at 13:49
1
Also, I'm an American English speaker and I use "I've not" in conversation...
– KutuluMike
Oct 14 '16 at 12:38
add a comment |
up vote
23
down vote
This is definitely an American English/British English thing, as you can't do it in American English but you can in British English.
In American English, you can't contract "have" if you are using it as a plain (not a "helping" or "auxiliary") verb. "I've a dog" and "They've a great time" are not grammatical in American English.
There are a number of other restrictions on contractions of "have" besides the one you cite. For example, you can't use contracted "have" followed by "not": "I've not been there" is not grammatical in American English even though "I've been there" is—if you want to contract, you have to say "I haven't been there".
I discussed this in a question about I’ven’t.
edited Apr 13 '17 at 12:38
Community♦
1
answered Sep 14 '10 at 17:26
nohat♦
59.5k12165235
2
Hm, I don't quite see where's the authority behind the assertion in this answer.
– Pacerier
Nov 5 '15 at 13:49
1
Also, I'm an American English speaker and I use "I've not" in conversation...
– KutuluMike
Oct 14 '16 at 12:38
add a comment |
up vote
23
down vote
up vote
23
down vote
This is definitely an American English/British English thing, as you can't do it in American English but you can in British English.
In American English, you can't contract "have" if you are using it as a plain (not a "helping" or "auxiliary") verb. "I've a dog" and "They've a great time" are not grammatical in American English.
There are a number of other restrictions on contractions of "have" besides the one you cite. For example, you can't use contracted "have" followed by "not": "I've not been there" is not grammatical in American English even though "I've been there" is—if you want to contract, you have to say "I haven't been there".
I discussed this in a question about I’ven’t.
edited Apr 13 '17 at 12:38
Community♦
1
answered Sep 14 '10 at 17:26
nohat♦
59.5k12165235
This is definitely an American English/British English thing, as you can't do it in American English but you can in British English.
In American English, you can't contract "have" if you are using it as a plain (not a "helping" or "auxiliary") verb. "I've a dog" and "They've a great time" are not grammatical in American English.
There are a number of other restrictions on contractions of "have" besides the one you cite. For example, you can't use contracted "have" followed by "not": "I've not been there" is not grammatical in American English even though "I've been there" is—if you want to contract, you have to say "I haven't been there".
I discussed this in a question about I’ven’t.
edited Apr 13 '17 at 12:38
Community♦
1
answered Sep 14 '10 at 17:26
nohat♦
59.5k12165235
edited Apr 13 '17 at 12:38
Community♦
1
edited Apr 13 '17 at 12:38
Community♦
1
edited Apr 13 '17 at 12:38
Community♦
1
1
answered Sep 14 '10 at 17:26
nohat♦
59.5k12165235
answered Sep 14 '10 at 17:26
nohat♦
59.5k12165235
answered Sep 14 '10 at 17:26
nohat♦
59.5k12165235
59.5k12165235
2
Hm, I don't quite see where's the authority behind the assertion in this answer.
– Pacerier
Nov 5 '15 at 13:49
1
Also, I'm an American English speaker and I use "I've not" in conversation...
– KutuluMike
Oct 14 '16 at 12:38
add a comment |
2
Hm, I don't quite see where's the authority behind the assertion in this answer.
– Pacerier
Nov 5 '15 at 13:49
1
Also, I'm an American English speaker and I use "I've not" in conversation...
– KutuluMike
Oct 14 '16 at 12:38
2
2
Hm, I don't quite see where's the authority behind the assertion in this answer.
– Pacerier
Nov 5 '15 at 13:49
Hm, I don't quite see where's the authority behind the assertion in this answer.
– Pacerier
Nov 5 '15 at 13:49
1
1
Also, I'm an American English speaker and I use "I've not" in conversation...
– KutuluMike
Oct 14 '16 at 12:38
Also, I'm an American English speaker and I use "I've not" in conversation...
– KutuluMike
Oct 14 '16 at 12:38
add a comment |
up vote
16
down vote
I think what you feel uncomfortable with is contraction of "have" as a main verb. When it's an auxiliary verb in, say, a perfect, contraction feels fine:
I've had a car before.
But contraction of main verb "have" meaning to own or possess feels weirder.
?And I've a car right now.
However, I have a feeling that people will contract main verb have in British English, but take that with a grain of salt. Americans faced with some kind of strange usage are far too willing to blame it on British English.
answered Sep 14 '10 at 12:25
JoFrhwld
1,5441014
5
You are correct this is a British English thing. Contraction of non-auxiliary have is possible in British English but not in American English.
– nohat♦
Sep 14 '10 at 17:27
2
@nohat: agreed - though only in some regions (as a former Londoner, I would never use "I've" in that context). You also see it in older literature.
– Steve Melnikoff
Sep 14 '10 at 19:55
In my neck of the woods, a parent might well say I've a few things to say to you, young lady! to an to a recalcitrant teenage daughter.
– FumbleFingers
Jul 20 '11 at 18:01
add a comment |
up vote
16
down vote
I think what you feel uncomfortable with is contraction of "have" as a main verb. When it's an auxiliary verb in, say, a perfect, contraction feels fine:
I've had a car before.
But contraction of main verb "have" meaning to own or possess feels weirder.
?And I've a car right now.
However, I have a feeling that people will contract main verb have in British English, but take that with a grain of salt. Americans faced with some kind of strange usage are far too willing to blame it on British English.
answered Sep 14 '10 at 12:25
JoFrhwld
1,5441014
5
You are correct this is a British English thing. Contraction of non-auxiliary have is possible in British English but not in American English.
– nohat♦
Sep 14 '10 at 17:27
2
@nohat: agreed - though only in some regions (as a former Londoner, I would never use "I've" in that context). You also see it in older literature.
– Steve Melnikoff
Sep 14 '10 at 19:55
In my neck of the woods, a parent might well say I've a few things to say to you, young lady! to an to a recalcitrant teenage daughter.
– FumbleFingers
Jul 20 '11 at 18:01
add a comment |
up vote
16
down vote
up vote
16
down vote
I think what you feel uncomfortable with is contraction of "have" as a main verb. When it's an auxiliary verb in, say, a perfect, contraction feels fine:
I've had a car before.
But contraction of main verb "have" meaning to own or possess feels weirder.
?And I've a car right now.
However, I have a feeling that people will contract main verb have in British English, but take that with a grain of salt. Americans faced with some kind of strange usage are far too willing to blame it on British English.
answered Sep 14 '10 at 12:25
JoFrhwld
1,5441014
I think what you feel uncomfortable with is contraction of "have" as a main verb. When it's an auxiliary verb in, say, a perfect, contraction feels fine:
I've had a car before.
But contraction of main verb "have" meaning to own or possess feels weirder.
?And I've a car right now.
However, I have a feeling that people will contract main verb have in British English, but take that with a grain of salt. Americans faced with some kind of strange usage are far too willing to blame it on British English.
answered Sep 14 '10 at 12:25
JoFrhwld
1,5441014
answered Sep 14 '10 at 12:25
JoFrhwld
1,5441014
answered Sep 14 '10 at 12:25
JoFrhwld
1,5441014
answered Sep 14 '10 at 12:25
JoFrhwld
1,5441014
1,5441014
5
You are correct this is a British English thing. Contraction of non-auxiliary have is possible in British English but not in American English.
– nohat♦
Sep 14 '10 at 17:27
2
@nohat: agreed - though only in some regions (as a former Londoner, I would never use "I've" in that context). You also see it in older literature.
– Steve Melnikoff
Sep 14 '10 at 19:55
In my neck of the woods, a parent might well say I've a few things to say to you, young lady! to an to a recalcitrant teenage daughter.
– FumbleFingers
Jul 20 '11 at 18:01
add a comment |
5
You are correct this is a British English thing. Contraction of non-auxiliary have is possible in British English but not in American English.
– nohat♦
Sep 14 '10 at 17:27
2
@nohat: agreed - though only in some regions (as a former Londoner, I would never use "I've" in that context). You also see it in older literature.
– Steve Melnikoff
Sep 14 '10 at 19:55
In my neck of the woods, a parent might well say I've a few things to say to you, young lady! to an to a recalcitrant teenage daughter.
– FumbleFingers
Jul 20 '11 at 18:01
5
5
You are correct this is a British English thing. Contraction of non-auxiliary have is possible in British English but not in American English.
– nohat♦
Sep 14 '10 at 17:27
You are correct this is a British English thing. Contraction of non-auxiliary have is possible in British English but not in American English.
– nohat♦
Sep 14 '10 at 17:27
2
2
@nohat: agreed - though only in some regions (as a former Londoner, I would never use "I've" in that context). You also see it in older literature.
– Steve Melnikoff
Sep 14 '10 at 19:55
@nohat: agreed - though only in some regions (as a former Londoner, I would never use "I've" in that context). You also see it in older literature.
– Steve Melnikoff
Sep 14 '10 at 19:55
In my neck of the woods, a parent might well say I've a few things to say to you, young lady! to an to a recalcitrant teenage daughter.
– FumbleFingers
Jul 20 '11 at 18:01
In my neck of the woods, a parent might well say I've a few things to say to you, young lady! to an to a recalcitrant teenage daughter.
– FumbleFingers
Jul 20 '11 at 18:01
add a comment |
up vote
7
down vote
I think "I've a car" is fine, but unusual on its own: as part of a longer sentence it's unexceptionable: "I've a car in the garage".
I suspect this is for prosodic reasons: "I've a car" has no word you can stress, other than "car", so people tend to change it to either "I have a car" or "I've got a car".
The other case is different: I can't think of any examples where I would expect to find "he's a pen", though I would rate it as perfectly grammatical.
answered Sep 14 '10 at 12:38
Colin Fine
62.1k167157
2
Again, as part of a larger construction, '... he's a pen that cost over 300 pounds' would be acceptable colloquially in the UK. These contractions wouldn't be used in sentence- or sentence-fragment-terminal position.
– Edwin Ashworth
May 29 '15 at 9:01
add a comment |
up vote
7
down vote
I think "I've a car" is fine, but unusual on its own: as part of a longer sentence it's unexceptionable: "I've a car in the garage".
I suspect this is for prosodic reasons: "I've a car" has no word you can stress, other than "car", so people tend to change it to either "I have a car" or "I've got a car".
The other case is different: I can't think of any examples where I would expect to find "he's a pen", though I would rate it as perfectly grammatical.
answered Sep 14 '10 at 12:38
Colin Fine
62.1k167157
2
Again, as part of a larger construction, '... he's a pen that cost over 300 pounds' would be acceptable colloquially in the UK. These contractions wouldn't be used in sentence- or sentence-fragment-terminal position.
– Edwin Ashworth
May 29 '15 at 9:01
add a comment |
up vote
7
down vote
up vote
7
down vote
I think "I've a car" is fine, but unusual on its own: as part of a longer sentence it's unexceptionable: "I've a car in the garage".
I suspect this is for prosodic reasons: "I've a car" has no word you can stress, other than "car", so people tend to change it to either "I have a car" or "I've got a car".
The other case is different: I can't think of any examples where I would expect to find "he's a pen", though I would rate it as perfectly grammatical.
answered Sep 14 '10 at 12:38
Colin Fine
62.1k167157
I think "I've a car" is fine, but unusual on its own: as part of a longer sentence it's unexceptionable: "I've a car in the garage".
I suspect this is for prosodic reasons: "I've a car" has no word you can stress, other than "car", so people tend to change it to either "I have a car" or "I've got a car".
The other case is different: I can't think of any examples where I would expect to find "he's a pen", though I would rate it as perfectly grammatical.
answered Sep 14 '10 at 12:38
Colin Fine
62.1k167157
answered Sep 14 '10 at 12:38
Colin Fine
62.1k167157
answered Sep 14 '10 at 12:38
Colin Fine
62.1k167157
answered Sep 14 '10 at 12:38
Colin Fine
62.1k167157
62.1k167157
2
Again, as part of a larger construction, '... he's a pen that cost over 300 pounds' would be acceptable colloquially in the UK. These contractions wouldn't be used in sentence- or sentence-fragment-terminal position.
– Edwin Ashworth
May 29 '15 at 9:01
add a comment |
2
Again, as part of a larger construction, '... he's a pen that cost over 300 pounds' would be acceptable colloquially in the UK. These contractions wouldn't be used in sentence- or sentence-fragment-terminal position.
– Edwin Ashworth
May 29 '15 at 9:01
2
2
Again, as part of a larger construction, '... he's a pen that cost over 300 pounds' would be acceptable colloquially in the UK. These contractions wouldn't be used in sentence- or sentence-fragment-terminal position.
– Edwin Ashworth
May 29 '15 at 9:01
Again, as part of a larger construction, '... he's a pen that cost over 300 pounds' would be acceptable colloquially in the UK. These contractions wouldn't be used in sentence- or sentence-fragment-terminal position.
– Edwin Ashworth
May 29 '15 at 9:01
add a comment |
up vote
3
down vote
It is rarely appropriate to use contractions in a formal writing environment.
I've heard the first construction in speech, mainly British English, but not the second.
answered Aug 5 '10 at 19:49
Michael Scott Shappe
87275
As demonstrated in your second sentence!
– Alan Hogue
Aug 5 '10 at 22:34
add a comment |
up vote
3
down vote
It is rarely appropriate to use contractions in a formal writing environment.
I've heard the first construction in speech, mainly British English, but not the second.
answered Aug 5 '10 at 19:49
Michael Scott Shappe
87275
As demonstrated in your second sentence!
– Alan Hogue
Aug 5 '10 at 22:34
add a comment |
up vote
3
down vote
up vote
3
down vote
It is rarely appropriate to use contractions in a formal writing environment.
I've heard the first construction in speech, mainly British English, but not the second.
answered Aug 5 '10 at 19:49
Michael Scott Shappe
87275
It is rarely appropriate to use contractions in a formal writing environment.
I've heard the first construction in speech, mainly British English, but not the second.
answered Aug 5 '10 at 19:49
Michael Scott Shappe
87275
answered Aug 5 '10 at 19:49
Michael Scott Shappe
87275
answered Aug 5 '10 at 19:49
Michael Scott Shappe
87275
answered Aug 5 '10 at 19:49
Michael Scott Shappe
87275
87275
As demonstrated in your second sentence!
– Alan Hogue
Aug 5 '10 at 22:34
add a comment |
As demonstrated in your second sentence!
– Alan Hogue
Aug 5 '10 at 22:34
As demonstrated in your second sentence!
– Alan Hogue
Aug 5 '10 at 22:34
As demonstrated in your second sentence!
– Alan Hogue
Aug 5 '10 at 22:34
add a comment |
up vote
3
down vote
They are both strictly correct but both slightly inelegant. The third especially could be confused with "He is a pen"
Some people like to avoid contractions like that in formal writing, but most people probably won't mind (or even notice).
It's probably wise to favour the contraction if you want to emphasise another part of the sentence: "I've never been so insulted!"
edited May 16 '14 at 18:18
yoozer8
6,76073978
answered Sep 14 '10 at 12:31
Mark Pim
1395
17
I'd go further and say that "He's a pen" is ALWAYS interpreted as "He IS a pen".
– Mr. Shiny and New 安宇
Sep 14 '10 at 14:02
add a comment |
up vote
3
down vote
They are both strictly correct but both slightly inelegant. The third especially could be confused with "He is a pen"
Some people like to avoid contractions like that in formal writing, but most people probably won't mind (or even notice).
It's probably wise to favour the contraction if you want to emphasise another part of the sentence: "I've never been so insulted!"
edited May 16 '14 at 18:18
yoozer8
6,76073978
answered Sep 14 '10 at 12:31
Mark Pim
1395
17
I'd go further and say that "He's a pen" is ALWAYS interpreted as "He IS a pen".
– Mr. Shiny and New 安宇
Sep 14 '10 at 14:02
add a comment |
up vote
3
down vote
up vote
3
down vote
They are both strictly correct but both slightly inelegant. The third especially could be confused with "He is a pen"
Some people like to avoid contractions like that in formal writing, but most people probably won't mind (or even notice).
It's probably wise to favour the contraction if you want to emphasise another part of the sentence: "I've never been so insulted!"
edited May 16 '14 at 18:18
yoozer8
6,76073978
answered Sep 14 '10 at 12:31
Mark Pim
1395
They are both strictly correct but both slightly inelegant. The third especially could be confused with "He is a pen"
Some people like to avoid contractions like that in formal writing, but most people probably won't mind (or even notice).
It's probably wise to favour the contraction if you want to emphasise another part of the sentence: "I've never been so insulted!"
edited May 16 '14 at 18:18
yoozer8
6,76073978
answered Sep 14 '10 at 12:31
Mark Pim
1395
edited May 16 '14 at 18:18
yoozer8
6,76073978
edited May 16 '14 at 18:18
yoozer8
6,76073978
edited May 16 '14 at 18:18
yoozer8
6,76073978
6,76073978
answered Sep 14 '10 at 12:31
Mark Pim
1395
answered Sep 14 '10 at 12:31
Mark Pim
1395
answered Sep 14 '10 at 12:31
Mark Pim
1395
1395
17
I'd go further and say that "He's a pen" is ALWAYS interpreted as "He IS a pen".
– Mr. Shiny and New 安宇
Sep 14 '10 at 14:02
add a comment |
17
I'd go further and say that "He's a pen" is ALWAYS interpreted as "He IS a pen".
– Mr. Shiny and New 安宇
Sep 14 '10 at 14:02
17
17
I'd go further and say that "He's a pen" is ALWAYS interpreted as "He IS a pen".
– Mr. Shiny and New 安宇
Sep 14 '10 at 14:02
I'd go further and say that "He's a pen" is ALWAYS interpreted as "He IS a pen".
– Mr. Shiny and New 安宇
Sep 14 '10 at 14:02
add a comment |
up vote
3
down vote
"I've" seems fairly normal to me as British (or at least Scottish) English, and is completely unambiguous. I don't think this "he's" would ever be understood as "he has" rather than "he is".
edited yesterday
Artyom Lugovoy
2341212
answered Mar 8 '11 at 13:38
neil
1,740913
add a comment |
up vote
3
down vote
"I've" seems fairly normal to me as British (or at least Scottish) English, and is completely unambiguous. I don't think this "he's" would ever be understood as "he has" rather than "he is".
edited yesterday
Artyom Lugovoy
2341212
answered Mar 8 '11 at 13:38
neil
1,740913
add a comment |
up vote
3
down vote
up vote
3
down vote
"I've" seems fairly normal to me as British (or at least Scottish) English, and is completely unambiguous. I don't think this "he's" would ever be understood as "he has" rather than "he is".
edited yesterday
Artyom Lugovoy
2341212
answered Mar 8 '11 at 13:38
neil
1,740913
"I've" seems fairly normal to me as British (or at least Scottish) English, and is completely unambiguous. I don't think this "he's" would ever be understood as "he has" rather than "he is".
edited yesterday
Artyom Lugovoy
2341212
answered Mar 8 '11 at 13:38
neil
1,740913
edited yesterday
Artyom Lugovoy
2341212
edited yesterday
Artyom Lugovoy
2341212
edited yesterday
Artyom Lugovoy
2341212
2341212
answered Mar 8 '11 at 13:38
neil
1,740913
answered Mar 8 '11 at 13:38
neil
1,740913
answered Mar 8 '11 at 13:38
neil
1,740913
1,740913
add a comment |
add a comment |
up vote
0
down vote
Technically, there's nothing wrong with it, although Uncle Mikey is correct that it's rarely appropriate to use contractions in formal writing.
The only reason the second one seems strange is because most people would say "They're having a great time," I suppose because they're in the middle of having it. I have said, though, "I'd a great time..." I just happen to speak too quickly.:)
I also say "I've got..." rather than "I have." When I'm not speaking incorrectly, I generally just say "I've." So, it's not just a British thing.
answered Aug 5 '10 at 20:23
kitukwfyer
3,5801920
Any chance of an explanation. I'm not sure what exactly is wrong with my answer, and I'd like to.
– kitukwfyer
Aug 5 '10 at 22:39
I didn't downvote, but my guess is that someone disagrees with your claim that "there's nothing wrong with it".
– nohat♦
Aug 6 '10 at 4:27
That might just be it! Probably should have thought of that.
– kitukwfyer
Aug 6 '10 at 7:18
add a comment |
up vote
0
down vote
Technically, there's nothing wrong with it, although Uncle Mikey is correct that it's rarely appropriate to use contractions in formal writing.
The only reason the second one seems strange is because most people would say "They're having a great time," I suppose because they're in the middle of having it. I have said, though, "I'd a great time..." I just happen to speak too quickly.:)
I also say "I've got..." rather than "I have." When I'm not speaking incorrectly, I generally just say "I've." So, it's not just a British thing.
answered Aug 5 '10 at 20:23
kitukwfyer
3,5801920
Any chance of an explanation. I'm not sure what exactly is wrong with my answer, and I'd like to.
– kitukwfyer
Aug 5 '10 at 22:39
I didn't downvote, but my guess is that someone disagrees with your claim that "there's nothing wrong with it".
– nohat♦
Aug 6 '10 at 4:27
That might just be it! Probably should have thought of that.
– kitukwfyer
Aug 6 '10 at 7:18
add a comment |
up vote
0
down vote
up vote
0
down vote
Technically, there's nothing wrong with it, although Uncle Mikey is correct that it's rarely appropriate to use contractions in formal writing.
The only reason the second one seems strange is because most people would say "They're having a great time," I suppose because they're in the middle of having it. I have said, though, "I'd a great time..." I just happen to speak too quickly.:)
I also say "I've got..." rather than "I have." When I'm not speaking incorrectly, I generally just say "I've." So, it's not just a British thing.
answered Aug 5 '10 at 20:23
kitukwfyer
3,5801920
Technically, there's nothing wrong with it, although Uncle Mikey is correct that it's rarely appropriate to use contractions in formal writing.
The only reason the second one seems strange is because most people would say "They're having a great time," I suppose because they're in the middle of having it. I have said, though, "I'd a great time..." I just happen to speak too quickly.:)
I also say "I've got..." rather than "I have." When I'm not speaking incorrectly, I generally just say "I've." So, it's not just a British thing.
answered Aug 5 '10 at 20:23
kitukwfyer
3,5801920
answered Aug 5 '10 at 20:23
kitukwfyer
3,5801920
answered Aug 5 '10 at 20:23
kitukwfyer
3,5801920
answered Aug 5 '10 at 20:23
kitukwfyer
3,5801920
3,5801920
Any chance of an explanation. I'm not sure what exactly is wrong with my answer, and I'd like to.
– kitukwfyer
Aug 5 '10 at 22:39
I didn't downvote, but my guess is that someone disagrees with your claim that "there's nothing wrong with it".
– nohat♦
Aug 6 '10 at 4:27
That might just be it! Probably should have thought of that.
– kitukwfyer
Aug 6 '10 at 7:18
add a comment |
Any chance of an explanation. I'm not sure what exactly is wrong with my answer, and I'd like to.
– kitukwfyer
Aug 5 '10 at 22:39
I didn't downvote, but my guess is that someone disagrees with your claim that "there's nothing wrong with it".
– nohat♦
Aug 6 '10 at 4:27
That might just be it! Probably should have thought of that.
– kitukwfyer
Aug 6 '10 at 7:18
Any chance of an explanation. I'm not sure what exactly is wrong with my answer, and I'd like to.
– kitukwfyer
Aug 5 '10 at 22:39
Any chance of an explanation. I'm not sure what exactly is wrong with my answer, and I'd like to.
– kitukwfyer
Aug 5 '10 at 22:39
I didn't downvote, but my guess is that someone disagrees with your claim that "there's nothing wrong with it".
– nohat♦
Aug 6 '10 at 4:27
I didn't downvote, but my guess is that someone disagrees with your claim that "there's nothing wrong with it".
– nohat♦
Aug 6 '10 at 4:27
That might just be it! Probably should have thought of that.
– kitukwfyer
Aug 6 '10 at 7:18
That might just be it! Probably should have thought of that.
– kitukwfyer
Aug 6 '10 at 7:18
add a comment |
protected by RegDwigнt♦ May 22 '11 at 12:26
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4
@serg555: Would you expect anything less on a site for grammar enthusiasts!?
– Daniel LeCheminant
Aug 5 '10 at 20:12
I think both of them are correct
– misho
Sep 14 '10 at 12:22
3
I've a car sounds British.
– OneProton
Sep 14 '10 at 17:57
11
He's a pen, sounds more likeHe is a pen.– Joe D
Sep 23 '10 at 15:49
Hmm. So We've a long way to go in the UK, before we reach US linguistic standards? I know Americans favour inserting got there, but is that a closely-observed rule?
– FumbleFingers
May 21 '11 at 18:01