White Noises, Woman or Women
What is the earliest printed use in English, including relevant context, of 'white woman' or 'white women'? As nearly as I have been able to discover, the term is first found in print in these contexts:
'white woman' appeared first in John of Trevisa's translation of Angelicus Bartholomaeus's De proprietatibus rerum Dates are uncertain, but OED dates the translation to sometime before 1398. The composition date of the original work in Latin was probably sometime before 1240. As published in 1582, the context clearly ascribes the color of people's skin to climate and geographical place of birth.
And a black woman hath much better milke, and more nourishing then a white woman.
'white women' seems to have first appeared in English in a 1595 publication, The problemes of Aristotle with other philosophers and phisitions. The work is attributed to three authors, Aristotle among them. Alexander of Aphrodisias is also attributed authorship. The third author, Marc Antoniao Zimara, died sometime after 1529. The name of the translator is not available.
Question. Why is the milke of browne women better, then of white women?
Answer. Because that browne women are hotter then others, and because the heate doth purge the milke sufficiently, and so the milke is the better.
The history of this term might provide more exact and complete knowledge of the linguistic underpinnings of systemic racism, which in turn might better inform efforts to undermine and curtail that racism. The earliest known uses of the term in English provide a starting point wherefrom the history of use in changing contexts can be traced and examined.
My research queried only the orthographic forms shown in the question; information on other, earlier forms would be welcome.
etymology racism
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JELJEL
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What is the earliest printed use in English, including relevant context, of 'white woman' or 'white women'? As nearly as I have been able to discover, the term is first found in print in these contexts:
'white woman' appeared first in John of Trevisa's translation of Angelicus Bartholomaeus's De proprietatibus rerum Dates are uncertain, but OED dates the translation to sometime before 1398. The composition date of the original work in Latin was probably sometime before 1240. As published in 1582, the context clearly ascribes the color of people's skin to climate and geographical place of birth.
And a black woman hath much better milke, and more nourishing then a white woman.
'white women' seems to have first appeared in English in a 1595 publication, The problemes of Aristotle with other philosophers and phisitions. The work is attributed to three authors, Aristotle among them. Alexander of Aphrodisias is also attributed authorship. The third author, Marc Antoniao Zimara, died sometime after 1529. The name of the translator is not available.
Question. Why is the milke of browne women better, then of white women?
Answer. Because that browne women are hotter then others, and because the heate doth purge the milke sufficiently, and so the milke is the better.
The history of this term might provide more exact and complete knowledge of the linguistic underpinnings of systemic racism, which in turn might better inform efforts to undermine and curtail that racism. The earliest known uses of the term in English provide a starting point wherefrom the history of use in changing contexts can be traced and examined.
My research queried only the orthographic forms shown in the question; information on other, earlier forms would be welcome.
etymology racism
asked 21 mins ago
JELJEL
27.8k45193
add a comment |
What is the earliest printed use in English, including relevant context, of 'white woman' or 'white women'? As nearly as I have been able to discover, the term is first found in print in these contexts:
'white woman' appeared first in John of Trevisa's translation of Angelicus Bartholomaeus's De proprietatibus rerum Dates are uncertain, but OED dates the translation to sometime before 1398. The composition date of the original work in Latin was probably sometime before 1240. As published in 1582, the context clearly ascribes the color of people's skin to climate and geographical place of birth.
And a black woman hath much better milke, and more nourishing then a white woman.
'white women' seems to have first appeared in English in a 1595 publication, The problemes of Aristotle with other philosophers and phisitions. The work is attributed to three authors, Aristotle among them. Alexander of Aphrodisias is also attributed authorship. The third author, Marc Antoniao Zimara, died sometime after 1529. The name of the translator is not available.
Question. Why is the milke of browne women better, then of white women?
Answer. Because that browne women are hotter then others, and because the heate doth purge the milke sufficiently, and so the milke is the better.
The history of this term might provide more exact and complete knowledge of the linguistic underpinnings of systemic racism, which in turn might better inform efforts to undermine and curtail that racism. The earliest known uses of the term in English provide a starting point wherefrom the history of use in changing contexts can be traced and examined.
My research queried only the orthographic forms shown in the question; information on other, earlier forms would be welcome.
etymology racism
asked 21 mins ago
JELJEL
27.8k45193
What is the earliest printed use in English, including relevant context, of 'white woman' or 'white women'? As nearly as I have been able to discover, the term is first found in print in these contexts:
'white woman' appeared first in John of Trevisa's translation of Angelicus Bartholomaeus's De proprietatibus rerum Dates are uncertain, but OED dates the translation to sometime before 1398. The composition date of the original work in Latin was probably sometime before 1240. As published in 1582, the context clearly ascribes the color of people's skin to climate and geographical place of birth.
And a black woman hath much better milke, and more nourishing then a white woman.
'white women' seems to have first appeared in English in a 1595 publication, The problemes of Aristotle with other philosophers and phisitions. The work is attributed to three authors, Aristotle among them. Alexander of Aphrodisias is also attributed authorship. The third author, Marc Antoniao Zimara, died sometime after 1529. The name of the translator is not available.
Question. Why is the milke of browne women better, then of white women?
Answer. Because that browne women are hotter then others, and because the heate doth purge the milke sufficiently, and so the milke is the better.
The history of this term might provide more exact and complete knowledge of the linguistic underpinnings of systemic racism, which in turn might better inform efforts to undermine and curtail that racism. The earliest known uses of the term in English provide a starting point wherefrom the history of use in changing contexts can be traced and examined.
My research queried only the orthographic forms shown in the question; information on other, earlier forms would be welcome.
etymology racism
etymology racism
asked 21 mins ago
JELJEL
27.8k45193
asked 21 mins ago
JELJEL
27.8k45193
asked 21 mins ago
JELJEL
27.8k45193
asked 21 mins ago
JELJEL
27.8k45193
asked 21 mins ago
JELJEL
27.8k45193
27.8k45193
add a comment |
add a comment |
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