If $T$ is an invertible linear transformation and $vec{v}$ is an eigenvector of $T$, then $vec{v}$ is an...
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I saw there is a proof for invertible matrices, but I don't know how to put this mathematically for a transformation.
How do I prove an invertible linear transformation has the same eigenvectors as its inverse?
linear-algebra eigenvalues-eigenvectors transformation
New contributor
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add a comment |
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I saw there is a proof for invertible matrices, but I don't know how to put this mathematically for a transformation.
How do I prove an invertible linear transformation has the same eigenvectors as its inverse?
linear-algebra eigenvalues-eigenvectors transformation
New contributor
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$begingroup$
Can't you just fix bases and consider your linear transformation as a matrix?
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– dcolazin
yesterday
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yup...I suppose that's what should have been done in the first place. I have posted an algebraic solution.
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– DGR
yesterday
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Wouldn’t the proof be exactly the same as the one for matrices?
$endgroup$
– amd
yesterday
add a comment |
$begingroup$
I saw there is a proof for invertible matrices, but I don't know how to put this mathematically for a transformation.
How do I prove an invertible linear transformation has the same eigenvectors as its inverse?
linear-algebra eigenvalues-eigenvectors transformation
New contributor
$endgroup$
I saw there is a proof for invertible matrices, but I don't know how to put this mathematically for a transformation.
How do I prove an invertible linear transformation has the same eigenvectors as its inverse?
linear-algebra eigenvalues-eigenvectors transformation
linear-algebra eigenvalues-eigenvectors transformation
New contributor
New contributor
edited yesterday
YuiTo Cheng
2,41341037
2,41341037
New contributor
asked yesterday
DGRDGR
163
163
New contributor
New contributor
$begingroup$
Can't you just fix bases and consider your linear transformation as a matrix?
$endgroup$
– dcolazin
yesterday
$begingroup$
yup...I suppose that's what should have been done in the first place. I have posted an algebraic solution.
$endgroup$
– DGR
yesterday
$begingroup$
Wouldn’t the proof be exactly the same as the one for matrices?
$endgroup$
– amd
yesterday
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Can't you just fix bases and consider your linear transformation as a matrix?
$endgroup$
– dcolazin
yesterday
$begingroup$
yup...I suppose that's what should have been done in the first place. I have posted an algebraic solution.
$endgroup$
– DGR
yesterday
$begingroup$
Wouldn’t the proof be exactly the same as the one for matrices?
$endgroup$
– amd
yesterday
$begingroup$
Can't you just fix bases and consider your linear transformation as a matrix?
$endgroup$
– dcolazin
yesterday
$begingroup$
Can't you just fix bases and consider your linear transformation as a matrix?
$endgroup$
– dcolazin
yesterday
$begingroup$
yup...I suppose that's what should have been done in the first place. I have posted an algebraic solution.
$endgroup$
– DGR
yesterday
$begingroup$
yup...I suppose that's what should have been done in the first place. I have posted an algebraic solution.
$endgroup$
– DGR
yesterday
$begingroup$
Wouldn’t the proof be exactly the same as the one for matrices?
$endgroup$
– amd
yesterday
$begingroup$
Wouldn’t the proof be exactly the same as the one for matrices?
$endgroup$
– amd
yesterday
add a comment |
2 Answers
2
active
oldest
votes
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Observe that for an invertible matrix $A$ with eigenvector $mathbf v$ and corresponding eigenvalue $lambdaneq 0$, you have that
begin{align*}
mathbf v &= I mathbf v\&=A^{-1}A mathbf v\&=lambda A^{-1} mathbf v
end{align*}
Hence $A^{-1} mathbf v = lambda^{-1}mathbf v$
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add a comment |
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OK, so Iv'e found a solution!
begin{align*}\
Tv &= lambda v vert *T^{-1} \
T^{-1}Tv &= T^{-1}lambda v \
v &= lambda T^{-1}v vert *lambda^{-1} & text{(Invertible transformation, $lambdaneq 0$)} \
lambda^{-1}v &= T^{-1}v
end{align*}
For $T^{-1}$, eigenvalue $lambda^{-1}$, eigenvector is $v$ (same as eigenvector of $T$).
Hope this helps!
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2 Answers
2
active
oldest
votes
2 Answers
2
active
oldest
votes
active
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votes
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votes
$begingroup$
Observe that for an invertible matrix $A$ with eigenvector $mathbf v$ and corresponding eigenvalue $lambdaneq 0$, you have that
begin{align*}
mathbf v &= I mathbf v\&=A^{-1}A mathbf v\&=lambda A^{-1} mathbf v
end{align*}
Hence $A^{-1} mathbf v = lambda^{-1}mathbf v$
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Observe that for an invertible matrix $A$ with eigenvector $mathbf v$ and corresponding eigenvalue $lambdaneq 0$, you have that
begin{align*}
mathbf v &= I mathbf v\&=A^{-1}A mathbf v\&=lambda A^{-1} mathbf v
end{align*}
Hence $A^{-1} mathbf v = lambda^{-1}mathbf v$
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Observe that for an invertible matrix $A$ with eigenvector $mathbf v$ and corresponding eigenvalue $lambdaneq 0$, you have that
begin{align*}
mathbf v &= I mathbf v\&=A^{-1}A mathbf v\&=lambda A^{-1} mathbf v
end{align*}
Hence $A^{-1} mathbf v = lambda^{-1}mathbf v$
$endgroup$
Observe that for an invertible matrix $A$ with eigenvector $mathbf v$ and corresponding eigenvalue $lambdaneq 0$, you have that
begin{align*}
mathbf v &= I mathbf v\&=A^{-1}A mathbf v\&=lambda A^{-1} mathbf v
end{align*}
Hence $A^{-1} mathbf v = lambda^{-1}mathbf v$
answered yesterday
P. QuintonP. Quinton
2,0001214
2,0001214
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OK, so Iv'e found a solution!
begin{align*}\
Tv &= lambda v vert *T^{-1} \
T^{-1}Tv &= T^{-1}lambda v \
v &= lambda T^{-1}v vert *lambda^{-1} & text{(Invertible transformation, $lambdaneq 0$)} \
lambda^{-1}v &= T^{-1}v
end{align*}
For $T^{-1}$, eigenvalue $lambda^{-1}$, eigenvector is $v$ (same as eigenvector of $T$).
Hope this helps!
New contributor
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
OK, so Iv'e found a solution!
begin{align*}\
Tv &= lambda v vert *T^{-1} \
T^{-1}Tv &= T^{-1}lambda v \
v &= lambda T^{-1}v vert *lambda^{-1} & text{(Invertible transformation, $lambdaneq 0$)} \
lambda^{-1}v &= T^{-1}v
end{align*}
For $T^{-1}$, eigenvalue $lambda^{-1}$, eigenvector is $v$ (same as eigenvector of $T$).
Hope this helps!
New contributor
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
OK, so Iv'e found a solution!
begin{align*}\
Tv &= lambda v vert *T^{-1} \
T^{-1}Tv &= T^{-1}lambda v \
v &= lambda T^{-1}v vert *lambda^{-1} & text{(Invertible transformation, $lambdaneq 0$)} \
lambda^{-1}v &= T^{-1}v
end{align*}
For $T^{-1}$, eigenvalue $lambda^{-1}$, eigenvector is $v$ (same as eigenvector of $T$).
Hope this helps!
New contributor
$endgroup$
OK, so Iv'e found a solution!
begin{align*}\
Tv &= lambda v vert *T^{-1} \
T^{-1}Tv &= T^{-1}lambda v \
v &= lambda T^{-1}v vert *lambda^{-1} & text{(Invertible transformation, $lambdaneq 0$)} \
lambda^{-1}v &= T^{-1}v
end{align*}
For $T^{-1}$, eigenvalue $lambda^{-1}$, eigenvector is $v$ (same as eigenvector of $T$).
Hope this helps!
New contributor
edited yesterday
Widawensen
4,80531447
4,80531447
New contributor
answered yesterday
DGRDGR
163
163
New contributor
New contributor
add a comment |
add a comment |
DGR is a new contributor. Be nice, and check out our Code of Conduct.
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$begingroup$
Can't you just fix bases and consider your linear transformation as a matrix?
$endgroup$
– dcolazin
yesterday
$begingroup$
yup...I suppose that's what should have been done in the first place. I have posted an algebraic solution.
$endgroup$
– DGR
yesterday
$begingroup$
Wouldn’t the proof be exactly the same as the one for matrices?
$endgroup$
– amd
yesterday