The problem of mood and voice in English grammar
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I am a university senior for the time being, and I have to make a presentation for the subject "The problem of mood and voice in English grammar" although I know about voice and mood in English grammar, I am unable to figure out what their problems are, moreover, I don't have any ideas about their problems, and don't know whether there is a connection between above the two.
Hope you will be able to give me some right ways, thanks in advance.
grammar
asked 16 hours ago
Sanjar IgamovSanjar Igamov
1362614
add a comment |
I am a university senior for the time being, and I have to make a presentation for the subject "The problem of mood and voice in English grammar" although I know about voice and mood in English grammar, I am unable to figure out what their problems are, moreover, I don't have any ideas about their problems, and don't know whether there is a connection between above the two.
Hope you will be able to give me some right ways, thanks in advance.
grammar
asked 16 hours ago
Sanjar IgamovSanjar Igamov
1362614
That's difficult to answer. Voice is straightforwardly active or passive, but mood is not really present in English except in the modal auxiliaries and irrealis "were".
– BillJ
16 hours ago
A couple of problems with voice in English: a) some people mistakenly think that using passive voice is "wrong" and b) many people, particularly those in (a), don't know what the passive voice is.
– James Random
16 hours ago
1
The problem with mood is that is traditionally meant to relate to inflections of verbs used to indicate types of modality. English has no such system. It uses multi verb constructions to do this. Some grammars that recognise this problem say that English has periphrastic or analytic moods, terms, however, that can only be applied to clauses, nit verbs. Or for that matter, sentences.
– Araucaria
7 hours ago
add a comment |
I am a university senior for the time being, and I have to make a presentation for the subject "The problem of mood and voice in English grammar" although I know about voice and mood in English grammar, I am unable to figure out what their problems are, moreover, I don't have any ideas about their problems, and don't know whether there is a connection between above the two.
Hope you will be able to give me some right ways, thanks in advance.
grammar
asked 16 hours ago
Sanjar IgamovSanjar Igamov
1362614
I am a university senior for the time being, and I have to make a presentation for the subject "The problem of mood and voice in English grammar" although I know about voice and mood in English grammar, I am unable to figure out what their problems are, moreover, I don't have any ideas about their problems, and don't know whether there is a connection between above the two.
Hope you will be able to give me some right ways, thanks in advance.
grammar
grammar
asked 16 hours ago
Sanjar IgamovSanjar Igamov
1362614
asked 16 hours ago
Sanjar IgamovSanjar Igamov
1362614
asked 16 hours ago
Sanjar IgamovSanjar Igamov
1362614
asked 16 hours ago
Sanjar IgamovSanjar Igamov
1362614
asked 16 hours ago
Sanjar IgamovSanjar Igamov
1362614
1362614
That's difficult to answer. Voice is straightforwardly active or passive, but mood is not really present in English except in the modal auxiliaries and irrealis "were".
– BillJ
16 hours ago
A couple of problems with voice in English: a) some people mistakenly think that using passive voice is "wrong" and b) many people, particularly those in (a), don't know what the passive voice is.
– James Random
16 hours ago
1
The problem with mood is that is traditionally meant to relate to inflections of verbs used to indicate types of modality. English has no such system. It uses multi verb constructions to do this. Some grammars that recognise this problem say that English has periphrastic or analytic moods, terms, however, that can only be applied to clauses, nit verbs. Or for that matter, sentences.
– Araucaria
7 hours ago
add a comment |
That's difficult to answer. Voice is straightforwardly active or passive, but mood is not really present in English except in the modal auxiliaries and irrealis "were".
– BillJ
16 hours ago
A couple of problems with voice in English: a) some people mistakenly think that using passive voice is "wrong" and b) many people, particularly those in (a), don't know what the passive voice is.
– James Random
16 hours ago
1
The problem with mood is that is traditionally meant to relate to inflections of verbs used to indicate types of modality. English has no such system. It uses multi verb constructions to do this. Some grammars that recognise this problem say that English has periphrastic or analytic moods, terms, however, that can only be applied to clauses, nit verbs. Or for that matter, sentences.
– Araucaria
7 hours ago
That's difficult to answer. Voice is straightforwardly active or passive, but mood is not really present in English except in the modal auxiliaries and irrealis "were".
– BillJ
16 hours ago
That's difficult to answer. Voice is straightforwardly active or passive, but mood is not really present in English except in the modal auxiliaries and irrealis "were".
– BillJ
16 hours ago
A couple of problems with voice in English: a) some people mistakenly think that using passive voice is "wrong" and b) many people, particularly those in (a), don't know what the passive voice is.
– James Random
16 hours ago
A couple of problems with voice in English: a) some people mistakenly think that using passive voice is "wrong" and b) many people, particularly those in (a), don't know what the passive voice is.
– James Random
16 hours ago
1
1
The problem with mood is that is traditionally meant to relate to inflections of verbs used to indicate types of modality. English has no such system. It uses multi verb constructions to do this. Some grammars that recognise this problem say that English has periphrastic or analytic moods, terms, however, that can only be applied to clauses, nit verbs. Or for that matter, sentences.
– Araucaria
7 hours ago
The problem with mood is that is traditionally meant to relate to inflections of verbs used to indicate types of modality. English has no such system. It uses multi verb constructions to do this. Some grammars that recognise this problem say that English has periphrastic or analytic moods, terms, however, that can only be applied to clauses, nit verbs. Or for that matter, sentences.
– Araucaria
7 hours ago
add a comment |
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That's difficult to answer. Voice is straightforwardly active or passive, but mood is not really present in English except in the modal auxiliaries and irrealis "were".
– BillJ
16 hours ago
A couple of problems with voice in English: a) some people mistakenly think that using passive voice is "wrong" and b) many people, particularly those in (a), don't know what the passive voice is.
– James Random
16 hours ago
1
The problem with mood is that is traditionally meant to relate to inflections of verbs used to indicate types of modality. English has no such system. It uses multi verb constructions to do this. Some grammars that recognise this problem say that English has periphrastic or analytic moods, terms, however, that can only be applied to clauses, nit verbs. Or for that matter, sentences.
– Araucaria
7 hours ago