Computing the expectation of the number of balls in a box
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- There are $r$ boxes and $n$ balls.
- Each ball is placed in a box with equal probability, independently of the other balls.
- Let $X_{i}$ be the number of balls in box $i$,
$1 leq i leq r$. - Compute $mathbb{E}left[X_{i}right], mathbb{E}left[X_{i}X_{j}right]$.
I am preparing for an exam, and I have no idea how to approach this problem. Can someone push me in the right direction ?.
probability-theory
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
- There are $r$ boxes and $n$ balls.
- Each ball is placed in a box with equal probability, independently of the other balls.
- Let $X_{i}$ be the number of balls in box $i$,
$1 leq i leq r$. - Compute $mathbb{E}left[X_{i}right], mathbb{E}left[X_{i}X_{j}right]$.
I am preparing for an exam, and I have no idea how to approach this problem. Can someone push me in the right direction ?.
probability-theory
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
Are there any restrictions on $j$?
$endgroup$
– Sean Lee
2 days ago
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@SeanLee In the question, no. I'm guessing it would have the same restrictions as i.
$endgroup$
– 631
2 days ago
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Computationally, the answer to the second part appears to be $frac{n^2}{r^2}$
$endgroup$
– Sean Lee
2 days ago
$begingroup$
Have you studied covariance matrices, or vector-valued random variables, at all? That would seem to me to provide the most compact notation for solving this problem.
$endgroup$
– Daniel Schepler
2 days ago
add a comment |
$begingroup$
- There are $r$ boxes and $n$ balls.
- Each ball is placed in a box with equal probability, independently of the other balls.
- Let $X_{i}$ be the number of balls in box $i$,
$1 leq i leq r$. - Compute $mathbb{E}left[X_{i}right], mathbb{E}left[X_{i}X_{j}right]$.
I am preparing for an exam, and I have no idea how to approach this problem. Can someone push me in the right direction ?.
probability-theory
$endgroup$
- There are $r$ boxes and $n$ balls.
- Each ball is placed in a box with equal probability, independently of the other balls.
- Let $X_{i}$ be the number of balls in box $i$,
$1 leq i leq r$. - Compute $mathbb{E}left[X_{i}right], mathbb{E}left[X_{i}X_{j}right]$.
I am preparing for an exam, and I have no idea how to approach this problem. Can someone push me in the right direction ?.
probability-theory
probability-theory
edited 2 days ago
Felix Marin
68.9k7110147
68.9k7110147
asked 2 days ago
631631
585
585
$begingroup$
Are there any restrictions on $j$?
$endgroup$
– Sean Lee
2 days ago
$begingroup$
@SeanLee In the question, no. I'm guessing it would have the same restrictions as i.
$endgroup$
– 631
2 days ago
$begingroup$
Computationally, the answer to the second part appears to be $frac{n^2}{r^2}$
$endgroup$
– Sean Lee
2 days ago
$begingroup$
Have you studied covariance matrices, or vector-valued random variables, at all? That would seem to me to provide the most compact notation for solving this problem.
$endgroup$
– Daniel Schepler
2 days ago
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Are there any restrictions on $j$?
$endgroup$
– Sean Lee
2 days ago
$begingroup$
@SeanLee In the question, no. I'm guessing it would have the same restrictions as i.
$endgroup$
– 631
2 days ago
$begingroup$
Computationally, the answer to the second part appears to be $frac{n^2}{r^2}$
$endgroup$
– Sean Lee
2 days ago
$begingroup$
Have you studied covariance matrices, or vector-valued random variables, at all? That would seem to me to provide the most compact notation for solving this problem.
$endgroup$
– Daniel Schepler
2 days ago
$begingroup$
Are there any restrictions on $j$?
$endgroup$
– Sean Lee
2 days ago
$begingroup$
Are there any restrictions on $j$?
$endgroup$
– Sean Lee
2 days ago
$begingroup$
@SeanLee In the question, no. I'm guessing it would have the same restrictions as i.
$endgroup$
– 631
2 days ago
$begingroup$
@SeanLee In the question, no. I'm guessing it would have the same restrictions as i.
$endgroup$
– 631
2 days ago
$begingroup$
Computationally, the answer to the second part appears to be $frac{n^2}{r^2}$
$endgroup$
– Sean Lee
2 days ago
$begingroup$
Computationally, the answer to the second part appears to be $frac{n^2}{r^2}$
$endgroup$
– Sean Lee
2 days ago
$begingroup$
Have you studied covariance matrices, or vector-valued random variables, at all? That would seem to me to provide the most compact notation for solving this problem.
$endgroup$
– Daniel Schepler
2 days ago
$begingroup$
Have you studied covariance matrices, or vector-valued random variables, at all? That would seem to me to provide the most compact notation for solving this problem.
$endgroup$
– Daniel Schepler
2 days ago
add a comment |
3 Answers
3
active
oldest
votes
$begingroup$
Since there are $r$ boxes and $n$ balls, and each ball is placed in a box with equal probability, we have:
$$ mathbb{E}[X_i] = frac{n}{r} $$
Now, we would like to know what is $mathbb{E}[X_i X_j] $.
We begin by making the following observation:
$$X_i = n - sum_{jneq i}X_j $$
Which gives us:
$$ X_isum_{jneq i}X_j = nX_i - X_i^2$$
Now, fix $i$ (we can do this because of the symmetry in the question), and thus we have:
begin{align}mathbb{E}[X_i X_j] &= frac{1}{r}Big(mathbb{E}[X_i sum_{jneq i} X_j] + mathbb{E}[X_i^2]Big) \
&= frac{1}{r} mathbb{E}[nX_i] \
&= frac{n^2}{r^2}
end{align}
$endgroup$
1
$begingroup$
If indeed $E(X_i X_j) = E(X_i) E(X_j)$ for $i in j$ then that implies zero correlation. I would expect a bit of negative correlation. (And indeed, my preliminary calculation based on the decomposition from VHarisop's answer seems to result in $E(X_i X_j) = frac{n(n-1)}{r^2}$ for $i ne j$ and $E(X_i^2) = frac{n}{r} + frac{n(n-1)}{r^2}$.)
$endgroup$
– Daniel Schepler
2 days ago
$begingroup$
Yeah, it seemed a little strange to me initially, but its consistent with your results btw: $frac{1}{r}[(r-1)E(X_iX_j) + E(X_i^2)] = frac{n^2}{r^2}$
$endgroup$
– Sean Lee
2 days ago
1
$begingroup$
I've now expanded VHarisop's answer with my calculations for part two of the question.
$endgroup$
– Daniel Schepler
2 days ago
add a comment |
$begingroup$
For the first part, you can use linearity of expectation to compute $mathbb{E}[X_i]$.
Specifically, you know that for a fixed box, the probability of putting a ball in it
is $frac{1}{r}$. Let
$$
Y_k^{(i)} = begin{cases}
1 &, text{ if ball $k$ was placed in box $i$} \
0 &, text{ otherwise}
end{cases},
$$
which satisfies $mathbb{E}[Y_k^{(i)}] = mathbb{P}(Y_k^{(i)} = 1) = frac{1}{r}.$
Then you can write
$$
X_i = sum_{j=1}^n Y_j^{(i)} Rightarrow mathbb{E}X_i = sum_{j=1}^n frac{1}{r} = frac{n}{r}.
$$
For the second part, you can proceed similarly: $X_i = sum_{k=1}^n Y_k^{(i)}$ and $X_j = sum_{ell=1}^n Y_{ell}^{(j)}$, so:
$$
X_i X_j = sum_{k=1}^n sum_{ell=1}^n Y_k^{(i)} Y_{ell}^{(j)} implies
mathbb{E}(X_i X_j) = sum_{k=1}^n sum_{ell=1}^n mathbb{E}(Y_k^{(i)} Y_{ell}^{(j)}).
$$
We will first treat the case where $i ne j$. Then, for each term in the sum such that $k = ell$, we must have $Y_k^{(i)} Y_{ell}^{(j)} = Y_k^{(i)} Y_k^{(j)} = 0$ since it impossible for ball $k$ to be placed both in box $i$ and in box $j$. On the other hand, if $k ne ell$, then the events corresponding to $Y_k^{(i)}$ and $Y_{ell}^{(j)}$ are independent since the placement of balls $k$ and $ell$ are independent, which implies that $Y_k^{(i)}$ and $Y_{ell}^{(j)}$ are independent random variables. Therefore, in this case,
$$mathbb{E}(Y_k^{(i)} Y_{ell}^{(j)}) = mathbb{E}(Y_k^{(i)}) mathbb{E}(Y_{ell}^{(j)}) = frac{1}{r} cdot frac{1}{r}.$$
In summary, if $i ne j$, then
$$mathbb{E}(X_i X_j) = sum_{k=1}^n sum_{ell=1}^n delta_{k ne ell} cdot frac{1}{r^2} = frac{n(n-1)}{r^2}$$
where $delta_{k ne ell}$ represents the indicator value which is 1 when $k ne ell$ and 0 when $k = ell$.
For the case $i = j$, I will leave the similar computation of $mathbb{E}(X_i^2)$ to you, with just the hint that the difference is in the expected value of $mathbb{E}(Y_k^{(i)} Y_{ell}^{(j)})$ for the case $k = ell$.
$endgroup$
1
$begingroup$
I decided to add my solution to part two, using your notation, to your answer to avoid having an answer split between your part and a part I would post separately. Feel free to edit it more to your liking, or even revert the addition if you prefer.
$endgroup$
– Daniel Schepler
2 days ago
$begingroup$
@DanielSchepler: Looks good, thank you!
$endgroup$
– VHarisop
yesterday
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Think of placing the ball in box "$i$" as success and not placing it as a failure.
This situation can be represented using the Hypergeometric Distribution.
$$
P(X=k) = frac{{K choose k} {N- Kchoose n - k}}{{N choose n}}.
$$
$N$ is the population size (number of boxes $r$)
$K$ is the number of success states in the population (just $1$ because the success is defined as placing the ball in box "$i$".)
$n$ is the number of draws (the number of balls $n$).
$k$ is the number of observed successes (the number of balls in box "$i$").
The expectation of the Hypergeometric Distribution is $nfrac{K}N$, hence the mean of your variable
$$E[X_i]=nfrac{1}{r}=frac{n}{r}$$
$endgroup$
add a comment |
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3 Answers
3
active
oldest
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3 Answers
3
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
$begingroup$
Since there are $r$ boxes and $n$ balls, and each ball is placed in a box with equal probability, we have:
$$ mathbb{E}[X_i] = frac{n}{r} $$
Now, we would like to know what is $mathbb{E}[X_i X_j] $.
We begin by making the following observation:
$$X_i = n - sum_{jneq i}X_j $$
Which gives us:
$$ X_isum_{jneq i}X_j = nX_i - X_i^2$$
Now, fix $i$ (we can do this because of the symmetry in the question), and thus we have:
begin{align}mathbb{E}[X_i X_j] &= frac{1}{r}Big(mathbb{E}[X_i sum_{jneq i} X_j] + mathbb{E}[X_i^2]Big) \
&= frac{1}{r} mathbb{E}[nX_i] \
&= frac{n^2}{r^2}
end{align}
$endgroup$
1
$begingroup$
If indeed $E(X_i X_j) = E(X_i) E(X_j)$ for $i in j$ then that implies zero correlation. I would expect a bit of negative correlation. (And indeed, my preliminary calculation based on the decomposition from VHarisop's answer seems to result in $E(X_i X_j) = frac{n(n-1)}{r^2}$ for $i ne j$ and $E(X_i^2) = frac{n}{r} + frac{n(n-1)}{r^2}$.)
$endgroup$
– Daniel Schepler
2 days ago
$begingroup$
Yeah, it seemed a little strange to me initially, but its consistent with your results btw: $frac{1}{r}[(r-1)E(X_iX_j) + E(X_i^2)] = frac{n^2}{r^2}$
$endgroup$
– Sean Lee
2 days ago
1
$begingroup$
I've now expanded VHarisop's answer with my calculations for part two of the question.
$endgroup$
– Daniel Schepler
2 days ago
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Since there are $r$ boxes and $n$ balls, and each ball is placed in a box with equal probability, we have:
$$ mathbb{E}[X_i] = frac{n}{r} $$
Now, we would like to know what is $mathbb{E}[X_i X_j] $.
We begin by making the following observation:
$$X_i = n - sum_{jneq i}X_j $$
Which gives us:
$$ X_isum_{jneq i}X_j = nX_i - X_i^2$$
Now, fix $i$ (we can do this because of the symmetry in the question), and thus we have:
begin{align}mathbb{E}[X_i X_j] &= frac{1}{r}Big(mathbb{E}[X_i sum_{jneq i} X_j] + mathbb{E}[X_i^2]Big) \
&= frac{1}{r} mathbb{E}[nX_i] \
&= frac{n^2}{r^2}
end{align}
$endgroup$
1
$begingroup$
If indeed $E(X_i X_j) = E(X_i) E(X_j)$ for $i in j$ then that implies zero correlation. I would expect a bit of negative correlation. (And indeed, my preliminary calculation based on the decomposition from VHarisop's answer seems to result in $E(X_i X_j) = frac{n(n-1)}{r^2}$ for $i ne j$ and $E(X_i^2) = frac{n}{r} + frac{n(n-1)}{r^2}$.)
$endgroup$
– Daniel Schepler
2 days ago
$begingroup$
Yeah, it seemed a little strange to me initially, but its consistent with your results btw: $frac{1}{r}[(r-1)E(X_iX_j) + E(X_i^2)] = frac{n^2}{r^2}$
$endgroup$
– Sean Lee
2 days ago
1
$begingroup$
I've now expanded VHarisop's answer with my calculations for part two of the question.
$endgroup$
– Daniel Schepler
2 days ago
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Since there are $r$ boxes and $n$ balls, and each ball is placed in a box with equal probability, we have:
$$ mathbb{E}[X_i] = frac{n}{r} $$
Now, we would like to know what is $mathbb{E}[X_i X_j] $.
We begin by making the following observation:
$$X_i = n - sum_{jneq i}X_j $$
Which gives us:
$$ X_isum_{jneq i}X_j = nX_i - X_i^2$$
Now, fix $i$ (we can do this because of the symmetry in the question), and thus we have:
begin{align}mathbb{E}[X_i X_j] &= frac{1}{r}Big(mathbb{E}[X_i sum_{jneq i} X_j] + mathbb{E}[X_i^2]Big) \
&= frac{1}{r} mathbb{E}[nX_i] \
&= frac{n^2}{r^2}
end{align}
$endgroup$
Since there are $r$ boxes and $n$ balls, and each ball is placed in a box with equal probability, we have:
$$ mathbb{E}[X_i] = frac{n}{r} $$
Now, we would like to know what is $mathbb{E}[X_i X_j] $.
We begin by making the following observation:
$$X_i = n - sum_{jneq i}X_j $$
Which gives us:
$$ X_isum_{jneq i}X_j = nX_i - X_i^2$$
Now, fix $i$ (we can do this because of the symmetry in the question), and thus we have:
begin{align}mathbb{E}[X_i X_j] &= frac{1}{r}Big(mathbb{E}[X_i sum_{jneq i} X_j] + mathbb{E}[X_i^2]Big) \
&= frac{1}{r} mathbb{E}[nX_i] \
&= frac{n^2}{r^2}
end{align}
edited 2 days ago
answered 2 days ago
Sean LeeSean Lee
828214
828214
1
$begingroup$
If indeed $E(X_i X_j) = E(X_i) E(X_j)$ for $i in j$ then that implies zero correlation. I would expect a bit of negative correlation. (And indeed, my preliminary calculation based on the decomposition from VHarisop's answer seems to result in $E(X_i X_j) = frac{n(n-1)}{r^2}$ for $i ne j$ and $E(X_i^2) = frac{n}{r} + frac{n(n-1)}{r^2}$.)
$endgroup$
– Daniel Schepler
2 days ago
$begingroup$
Yeah, it seemed a little strange to me initially, but its consistent with your results btw: $frac{1}{r}[(r-1)E(X_iX_j) + E(X_i^2)] = frac{n^2}{r^2}$
$endgroup$
– Sean Lee
2 days ago
1
$begingroup$
I've now expanded VHarisop's answer with my calculations for part two of the question.
$endgroup$
– Daniel Schepler
2 days ago
add a comment |
1
$begingroup$
If indeed $E(X_i X_j) = E(X_i) E(X_j)$ for $i in j$ then that implies zero correlation. I would expect a bit of negative correlation. (And indeed, my preliminary calculation based on the decomposition from VHarisop's answer seems to result in $E(X_i X_j) = frac{n(n-1)}{r^2}$ for $i ne j$ and $E(X_i^2) = frac{n}{r} + frac{n(n-1)}{r^2}$.)
$endgroup$
– Daniel Schepler
2 days ago
$begingroup$
Yeah, it seemed a little strange to me initially, but its consistent with your results btw: $frac{1}{r}[(r-1)E(X_iX_j) + E(X_i^2)] = frac{n^2}{r^2}$
$endgroup$
– Sean Lee
2 days ago
1
$begingroup$
I've now expanded VHarisop's answer with my calculations for part two of the question.
$endgroup$
– Daniel Schepler
2 days ago
1
1
$begingroup$
If indeed $E(X_i X_j) = E(X_i) E(X_j)$ for $i in j$ then that implies zero correlation. I would expect a bit of negative correlation. (And indeed, my preliminary calculation based on the decomposition from VHarisop's answer seems to result in $E(X_i X_j) = frac{n(n-1)}{r^2}$ for $i ne j$ and $E(X_i^2) = frac{n}{r} + frac{n(n-1)}{r^2}$.)
$endgroup$
– Daniel Schepler
2 days ago
$begingroup$
If indeed $E(X_i X_j) = E(X_i) E(X_j)$ for $i in j$ then that implies zero correlation. I would expect a bit of negative correlation. (And indeed, my preliminary calculation based on the decomposition from VHarisop's answer seems to result in $E(X_i X_j) = frac{n(n-1)}{r^2}$ for $i ne j$ and $E(X_i^2) = frac{n}{r} + frac{n(n-1)}{r^2}$.)
$endgroup$
– Daniel Schepler
2 days ago
$begingroup$
Yeah, it seemed a little strange to me initially, but its consistent with your results btw: $frac{1}{r}[(r-1)E(X_iX_j) + E(X_i^2)] = frac{n^2}{r^2}$
$endgroup$
– Sean Lee
2 days ago
$begingroup$
Yeah, it seemed a little strange to me initially, but its consistent with your results btw: $frac{1}{r}[(r-1)E(X_iX_j) + E(X_i^2)] = frac{n^2}{r^2}$
$endgroup$
– Sean Lee
2 days ago
1
1
$begingroup$
I've now expanded VHarisop's answer with my calculations for part two of the question.
$endgroup$
– Daniel Schepler
2 days ago
$begingroup$
I've now expanded VHarisop's answer with my calculations for part two of the question.
$endgroup$
– Daniel Schepler
2 days ago
add a comment |
$begingroup$
For the first part, you can use linearity of expectation to compute $mathbb{E}[X_i]$.
Specifically, you know that for a fixed box, the probability of putting a ball in it
is $frac{1}{r}$. Let
$$
Y_k^{(i)} = begin{cases}
1 &, text{ if ball $k$ was placed in box $i$} \
0 &, text{ otherwise}
end{cases},
$$
which satisfies $mathbb{E}[Y_k^{(i)}] = mathbb{P}(Y_k^{(i)} = 1) = frac{1}{r}.$
Then you can write
$$
X_i = sum_{j=1}^n Y_j^{(i)} Rightarrow mathbb{E}X_i = sum_{j=1}^n frac{1}{r} = frac{n}{r}.
$$
For the second part, you can proceed similarly: $X_i = sum_{k=1}^n Y_k^{(i)}$ and $X_j = sum_{ell=1}^n Y_{ell}^{(j)}$, so:
$$
X_i X_j = sum_{k=1}^n sum_{ell=1}^n Y_k^{(i)} Y_{ell}^{(j)} implies
mathbb{E}(X_i X_j) = sum_{k=1}^n sum_{ell=1}^n mathbb{E}(Y_k^{(i)} Y_{ell}^{(j)}).
$$
We will first treat the case where $i ne j$. Then, for each term in the sum such that $k = ell$, we must have $Y_k^{(i)} Y_{ell}^{(j)} = Y_k^{(i)} Y_k^{(j)} = 0$ since it impossible for ball $k$ to be placed both in box $i$ and in box $j$. On the other hand, if $k ne ell$, then the events corresponding to $Y_k^{(i)}$ and $Y_{ell}^{(j)}$ are independent since the placement of balls $k$ and $ell$ are independent, which implies that $Y_k^{(i)}$ and $Y_{ell}^{(j)}$ are independent random variables. Therefore, in this case,
$$mathbb{E}(Y_k^{(i)} Y_{ell}^{(j)}) = mathbb{E}(Y_k^{(i)}) mathbb{E}(Y_{ell}^{(j)}) = frac{1}{r} cdot frac{1}{r}.$$
In summary, if $i ne j$, then
$$mathbb{E}(X_i X_j) = sum_{k=1}^n sum_{ell=1}^n delta_{k ne ell} cdot frac{1}{r^2} = frac{n(n-1)}{r^2}$$
where $delta_{k ne ell}$ represents the indicator value which is 1 when $k ne ell$ and 0 when $k = ell$.
For the case $i = j$, I will leave the similar computation of $mathbb{E}(X_i^2)$ to you, with just the hint that the difference is in the expected value of $mathbb{E}(Y_k^{(i)} Y_{ell}^{(j)})$ for the case $k = ell$.
$endgroup$
1
$begingroup$
I decided to add my solution to part two, using your notation, to your answer to avoid having an answer split between your part and a part I would post separately. Feel free to edit it more to your liking, or even revert the addition if you prefer.
$endgroup$
– Daniel Schepler
2 days ago
$begingroup$
@DanielSchepler: Looks good, thank you!
$endgroup$
– VHarisop
yesterday
add a comment |
$begingroup$
For the first part, you can use linearity of expectation to compute $mathbb{E}[X_i]$.
Specifically, you know that for a fixed box, the probability of putting a ball in it
is $frac{1}{r}$. Let
$$
Y_k^{(i)} = begin{cases}
1 &, text{ if ball $k$ was placed in box $i$} \
0 &, text{ otherwise}
end{cases},
$$
which satisfies $mathbb{E}[Y_k^{(i)}] = mathbb{P}(Y_k^{(i)} = 1) = frac{1}{r}.$
Then you can write
$$
X_i = sum_{j=1}^n Y_j^{(i)} Rightarrow mathbb{E}X_i = sum_{j=1}^n frac{1}{r} = frac{n}{r}.
$$
For the second part, you can proceed similarly: $X_i = sum_{k=1}^n Y_k^{(i)}$ and $X_j = sum_{ell=1}^n Y_{ell}^{(j)}$, so:
$$
X_i X_j = sum_{k=1}^n sum_{ell=1}^n Y_k^{(i)} Y_{ell}^{(j)} implies
mathbb{E}(X_i X_j) = sum_{k=1}^n sum_{ell=1}^n mathbb{E}(Y_k^{(i)} Y_{ell}^{(j)}).
$$
We will first treat the case where $i ne j$. Then, for each term in the sum such that $k = ell$, we must have $Y_k^{(i)} Y_{ell}^{(j)} = Y_k^{(i)} Y_k^{(j)} = 0$ since it impossible for ball $k$ to be placed both in box $i$ and in box $j$. On the other hand, if $k ne ell$, then the events corresponding to $Y_k^{(i)}$ and $Y_{ell}^{(j)}$ are independent since the placement of balls $k$ and $ell$ are independent, which implies that $Y_k^{(i)}$ and $Y_{ell}^{(j)}$ are independent random variables. Therefore, in this case,
$$mathbb{E}(Y_k^{(i)} Y_{ell}^{(j)}) = mathbb{E}(Y_k^{(i)}) mathbb{E}(Y_{ell}^{(j)}) = frac{1}{r} cdot frac{1}{r}.$$
In summary, if $i ne j$, then
$$mathbb{E}(X_i X_j) = sum_{k=1}^n sum_{ell=1}^n delta_{k ne ell} cdot frac{1}{r^2} = frac{n(n-1)}{r^2}$$
where $delta_{k ne ell}$ represents the indicator value which is 1 when $k ne ell$ and 0 when $k = ell$.
For the case $i = j$, I will leave the similar computation of $mathbb{E}(X_i^2)$ to you, with just the hint that the difference is in the expected value of $mathbb{E}(Y_k^{(i)} Y_{ell}^{(j)})$ for the case $k = ell$.
$endgroup$
1
$begingroup$
I decided to add my solution to part two, using your notation, to your answer to avoid having an answer split between your part and a part I would post separately. Feel free to edit it more to your liking, or even revert the addition if you prefer.
$endgroup$
– Daniel Schepler
2 days ago
$begingroup$
@DanielSchepler: Looks good, thank you!
$endgroup$
– VHarisop
yesterday
add a comment |
$begingroup$
For the first part, you can use linearity of expectation to compute $mathbb{E}[X_i]$.
Specifically, you know that for a fixed box, the probability of putting a ball in it
is $frac{1}{r}$. Let
$$
Y_k^{(i)} = begin{cases}
1 &, text{ if ball $k$ was placed in box $i$} \
0 &, text{ otherwise}
end{cases},
$$
which satisfies $mathbb{E}[Y_k^{(i)}] = mathbb{P}(Y_k^{(i)} = 1) = frac{1}{r}.$
Then you can write
$$
X_i = sum_{j=1}^n Y_j^{(i)} Rightarrow mathbb{E}X_i = sum_{j=1}^n frac{1}{r} = frac{n}{r}.
$$
For the second part, you can proceed similarly: $X_i = sum_{k=1}^n Y_k^{(i)}$ and $X_j = sum_{ell=1}^n Y_{ell}^{(j)}$, so:
$$
X_i X_j = sum_{k=1}^n sum_{ell=1}^n Y_k^{(i)} Y_{ell}^{(j)} implies
mathbb{E}(X_i X_j) = sum_{k=1}^n sum_{ell=1}^n mathbb{E}(Y_k^{(i)} Y_{ell}^{(j)}).
$$
We will first treat the case where $i ne j$. Then, for each term in the sum such that $k = ell$, we must have $Y_k^{(i)} Y_{ell}^{(j)} = Y_k^{(i)} Y_k^{(j)} = 0$ since it impossible for ball $k$ to be placed both in box $i$ and in box $j$. On the other hand, if $k ne ell$, then the events corresponding to $Y_k^{(i)}$ and $Y_{ell}^{(j)}$ are independent since the placement of balls $k$ and $ell$ are independent, which implies that $Y_k^{(i)}$ and $Y_{ell}^{(j)}$ are independent random variables. Therefore, in this case,
$$mathbb{E}(Y_k^{(i)} Y_{ell}^{(j)}) = mathbb{E}(Y_k^{(i)}) mathbb{E}(Y_{ell}^{(j)}) = frac{1}{r} cdot frac{1}{r}.$$
In summary, if $i ne j$, then
$$mathbb{E}(X_i X_j) = sum_{k=1}^n sum_{ell=1}^n delta_{k ne ell} cdot frac{1}{r^2} = frac{n(n-1)}{r^2}$$
where $delta_{k ne ell}$ represents the indicator value which is 1 when $k ne ell$ and 0 when $k = ell$.
For the case $i = j$, I will leave the similar computation of $mathbb{E}(X_i^2)$ to you, with just the hint that the difference is in the expected value of $mathbb{E}(Y_k^{(i)} Y_{ell}^{(j)})$ for the case $k = ell$.
$endgroup$
For the first part, you can use linearity of expectation to compute $mathbb{E}[X_i]$.
Specifically, you know that for a fixed box, the probability of putting a ball in it
is $frac{1}{r}$. Let
$$
Y_k^{(i)} = begin{cases}
1 &, text{ if ball $k$ was placed in box $i$} \
0 &, text{ otherwise}
end{cases},
$$
which satisfies $mathbb{E}[Y_k^{(i)}] = mathbb{P}(Y_k^{(i)} = 1) = frac{1}{r}.$
Then you can write
$$
X_i = sum_{j=1}^n Y_j^{(i)} Rightarrow mathbb{E}X_i = sum_{j=1}^n frac{1}{r} = frac{n}{r}.
$$
For the second part, you can proceed similarly: $X_i = sum_{k=1}^n Y_k^{(i)}$ and $X_j = sum_{ell=1}^n Y_{ell}^{(j)}$, so:
$$
X_i X_j = sum_{k=1}^n sum_{ell=1}^n Y_k^{(i)} Y_{ell}^{(j)} implies
mathbb{E}(X_i X_j) = sum_{k=1}^n sum_{ell=1}^n mathbb{E}(Y_k^{(i)} Y_{ell}^{(j)}).
$$
We will first treat the case where $i ne j$. Then, for each term in the sum such that $k = ell$, we must have $Y_k^{(i)} Y_{ell}^{(j)} = Y_k^{(i)} Y_k^{(j)} = 0$ since it impossible for ball $k$ to be placed both in box $i$ and in box $j$. On the other hand, if $k ne ell$, then the events corresponding to $Y_k^{(i)}$ and $Y_{ell}^{(j)}$ are independent since the placement of balls $k$ and $ell$ are independent, which implies that $Y_k^{(i)}$ and $Y_{ell}^{(j)}$ are independent random variables. Therefore, in this case,
$$mathbb{E}(Y_k^{(i)} Y_{ell}^{(j)}) = mathbb{E}(Y_k^{(i)}) mathbb{E}(Y_{ell}^{(j)}) = frac{1}{r} cdot frac{1}{r}.$$
In summary, if $i ne j$, then
$$mathbb{E}(X_i X_j) = sum_{k=1}^n sum_{ell=1}^n delta_{k ne ell} cdot frac{1}{r^2} = frac{n(n-1)}{r^2}$$
where $delta_{k ne ell}$ represents the indicator value which is 1 when $k ne ell$ and 0 when $k = ell$.
For the case $i = j$, I will leave the similar computation of $mathbb{E}(X_i^2)$ to you, with just the hint that the difference is in the expected value of $mathbb{E}(Y_k^{(i)} Y_{ell}^{(j)})$ for the case $k = ell$.
edited 2 days ago
Daniel Schepler
9,3341821
9,3341821
answered 2 days ago
VHarisopVHarisop
1,228421
1,228421
1
$begingroup$
I decided to add my solution to part two, using your notation, to your answer to avoid having an answer split between your part and a part I would post separately. Feel free to edit it more to your liking, or even revert the addition if you prefer.
$endgroup$
– Daniel Schepler
2 days ago
$begingroup$
@DanielSchepler: Looks good, thank you!
$endgroup$
– VHarisop
yesterday
add a comment |
1
$begingroup$
I decided to add my solution to part two, using your notation, to your answer to avoid having an answer split between your part and a part I would post separately. Feel free to edit it more to your liking, or even revert the addition if you prefer.
$endgroup$
– Daniel Schepler
2 days ago
$begingroup$
@DanielSchepler: Looks good, thank you!
$endgroup$
– VHarisop
yesterday
1
1
$begingroup$
I decided to add my solution to part two, using your notation, to your answer to avoid having an answer split between your part and a part I would post separately. Feel free to edit it more to your liking, or even revert the addition if you prefer.
$endgroup$
– Daniel Schepler
2 days ago
$begingroup$
I decided to add my solution to part two, using your notation, to your answer to avoid having an answer split between your part and a part I would post separately. Feel free to edit it more to your liking, or even revert the addition if you prefer.
$endgroup$
– Daniel Schepler
2 days ago
$begingroup$
@DanielSchepler: Looks good, thank you!
$endgroup$
– VHarisop
yesterday
$begingroup$
@DanielSchepler: Looks good, thank you!
$endgroup$
– VHarisop
yesterday
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Think of placing the ball in box "$i$" as success and not placing it as a failure.
This situation can be represented using the Hypergeometric Distribution.
$$
P(X=k) = frac{{K choose k} {N- Kchoose n - k}}{{N choose n}}.
$$
$N$ is the population size (number of boxes $r$)
$K$ is the number of success states in the population (just $1$ because the success is defined as placing the ball in box "$i$".)
$n$ is the number of draws (the number of balls $n$).
$k$ is the number of observed successes (the number of balls in box "$i$").
The expectation of the Hypergeometric Distribution is $nfrac{K}N$, hence the mean of your variable
$$E[X_i]=nfrac{1}{r}=frac{n}{r}$$
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Think of placing the ball in box "$i$" as success and not placing it as a failure.
This situation can be represented using the Hypergeometric Distribution.
$$
P(X=k) = frac{{K choose k} {N- Kchoose n - k}}{{N choose n}}.
$$
$N$ is the population size (number of boxes $r$)
$K$ is the number of success states in the population (just $1$ because the success is defined as placing the ball in box "$i$".)
$n$ is the number of draws (the number of balls $n$).
$k$ is the number of observed successes (the number of balls in box "$i$").
The expectation of the Hypergeometric Distribution is $nfrac{K}N$, hence the mean of your variable
$$E[X_i]=nfrac{1}{r}=frac{n}{r}$$
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Think of placing the ball in box "$i$" as success and not placing it as a failure.
This situation can be represented using the Hypergeometric Distribution.
$$
P(X=k) = frac{{K choose k} {N- Kchoose n - k}}{{N choose n}}.
$$
$N$ is the population size (number of boxes $r$)
$K$ is the number of success states in the population (just $1$ because the success is defined as placing the ball in box "$i$".)
$n$ is the number of draws (the number of balls $n$).
$k$ is the number of observed successes (the number of balls in box "$i$").
The expectation of the Hypergeometric Distribution is $nfrac{K}N$, hence the mean of your variable
$$E[X_i]=nfrac{1}{r}=frac{n}{r}$$
$endgroup$
Think of placing the ball in box "$i$" as success and not placing it as a failure.
This situation can be represented using the Hypergeometric Distribution.
$$
P(X=k) = frac{{K choose k} {N- Kchoose n - k}}{{N choose n}}.
$$
$N$ is the population size (number of boxes $r$)
$K$ is the number of success states in the population (just $1$ because the success is defined as placing the ball in box "$i$".)
$n$ is the number of draws (the number of balls $n$).
$k$ is the number of observed successes (the number of balls in box "$i$").
The expectation of the Hypergeometric Distribution is $nfrac{K}N$, hence the mean of your variable
$$E[X_i]=nfrac{1}{r}=frac{n}{r}$$
answered 2 days ago
RScrlliRScrlli
761114
761114
add a comment |
add a comment |
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$begingroup$
Are there any restrictions on $j$?
$endgroup$
– Sean Lee
2 days ago
$begingroup$
@SeanLee In the question, no. I'm guessing it would have the same restrictions as i.
$endgroup$
– 631
2 days ago
$begingroup$
Computationally, the answer to the second part appears to be $frac{n^2}{r^2}$
$endgroup$
– Sean Lee
2 days ago
$begingroup$
Have you studied covariance matrices, or vector-valued random variables, at all? That would seem to me to provide the most compact notation for solving this problem.
$endgroup$
– Daniel Schepler
2 days ago