Noun form of “aver”?
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up vote
10
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It is common in legal writing to aver, meaning to allege, assert, or affirm a fact. (Latin root is adver.)
But I can't find any evidence that the obvious noun form of the word, aversion, has ever been used as such. Instead, aversion has always and only been derivative of the Latin root avers, meaning something like to turn away.
I.e., it seems like the avert verb root blocked the noun form aversion from being used with the aver verb. Is this correct? If so, is there a term for this sort of conflict and deconfliction in English (or in linguistics more generally)?
etymology language-evolution variants
asked 20 hours ago
feetwet
757827
|
show 1 more comment
up vote
10
down vote
favorite
It is common in legal writing to aver, meaning to allege, assert, or affirm a fact. (Latin root is adver.)
But I can't find any evidence that the obvious noun form of the word, aversion, has ever been used as such. Instead, aversion has always and only been derivative of the Latin root avers, meaning something like to turn away.
I.e., it seems like the avert verb root blocked the noun form aversion from being used with the aver verb. Is this correct? If so, is there a term for this sort of conflict and deconfliction in English (or in linguistics more generally)?
etymology language-evolution variants
asked 20 hours ago
feetwet
757827
2
One is, of course, tempted to say "aversion", but one should have an aversion to that.
– Hot Licks
15 hours ago
Where all have you looked for an answer?
– Kris
6 hours ago
2
How the eight up votes?
– Kris
6 hours ago
1
@Hot Licks The average person may also be tempted to say "average".
– henning
2 hours ago
1
'Aversion' is not the obvious noun form for 'aver' because as you say 'avert' is the verb that corresponds to 'aversion' and there fore there is no blocking. 'Aversion' is only thought of first due to coincidentally very similar pronunciation. So there's no conflict. But to answer your secondary question (if there were such a 'blocking') the name for it would be something like 'bleeding order', the ordering of rules such that the 1st rule removes things from a 2nd naturally following rule from being applied. 'feeding order' is where a rule changes things so that the 2nd rule applies.
– Mitch
1 hour ago
|
show 1 more comment
up vote
10
down vote
favorite
up vote
10
down vote
favorite
It is common in legal writing to aver, meaning to allege, assert, or affirm a fact. (Latin root is adver.)
But I can't find any evidence that the obvious noun form of the word, aversion, has ever been used as such. Instead, aversion has always and only been derivative of the Latin root avers, meaning something like to turn away.
I.e., it seems like the avert verb root blocked the noun form aversion from being used with the aver verb. Is this correct? If so, is there a term for this sort of conflict and deconfliction in English (or in linguistics more generally)?
etymology language-evolution variants
asked 20 hours ago
feetwet
757827
It is common in legal writing to aver, meaning to allege, assert, or affirm a fact. (Latin root is adver.)
But I can't find any evidence that the obvious noun form of the word, aversion, has ever been used as such. Instead, aversion has always and only been derivative of the Latin root avers, meaning something like to turn away.
I.e., it seems like the avert verb root blocked the noun form aversion from being used with the aver verb. Is this correct? If so, is there a term for this sort of conflict and deconfliction in English (or in linguistics more generally)?
etymology language-evolution variants
etymology language-evolution variants
asked 20 hours ago
feetwet
757827
asked 20 hours ago
feetwet
757827
asked 20 hours ago
feetwet
757827
asked 20 hours ago
feetwet
757827
asked 20 hours ago
feetwet
757827
757827
2
One is, of course, tempted to say "aversion", but one should have an aversion to that.
– Hot Licks
15 hours ago
Where all have you looked for an answer?
– Kris
6 hours ago
2
How the eight up votes?
– Kris
6 hours ago
1
@Hot Licks The average person may also be tempted to say "average".
– henning
2 hours ago
1
'Aversion' is not the obvious noun form for 'aver' because as you say 'avert' is the verb that corresponds to 'aversion' and there fore there is no blocking. 'Aversion' is only thought of first due to coincidentally very similar pronunciation. So there's no conflict. But to answer your secondary question (if there were such a 'blocking') the name for it would be something like 'bleeding order', the ordering of rules such that the 1st rule removes things from a 2nd naturally following rule from being applied. 'feeding order' is where a rule changes things so that the 2nd rule applies.
– Mitch
1 hour ago
|
show 1 more comment
2
One is, of course, tempted to say "aversion", but one should have an aversion to that.
– Hot Licks
15 hours ago
Where all have you looked for an answer?
– Kris
6 hours ago
2
How the eight up votes?
– Kris
6 hours ago
1
@Hot Licks The average person may also be tempted to say "average".
– henning
2 hours ago
1
'Aversion' is not the obvious noun form for 'aver' because as you say 'avert' is the verb that corresponds to 'aversion' and there fore there is no blocking. 'Aversion' is only thought of first due to coincidentally very similar pronunciation. So there's no conflict. But to answer your secondary question (if there were such a 'blocking') the name for it would be something like 'bleeding order', the ordering of rules such that the 1st rule removes things from a 2nd naturally following rule from being applied. 'feeding order' is where a rule changes things so that the 2nd rule applies.
– Mitch
1 hour ago
2
2
One is, of course, tempted to say "aversion", but one should have an aversion to that.
– Hot Licks
15 hours ago
One is, of course, tempted to say "aversion", but one should have an aversion to that.
– Hot Licks
15 hours ago
Where all have you looked for an answer?
– Kris
6 hours ago
Where all have you looked for an answer?
– Kris
6 hours ago
2
2
How the eight up votes?
– Kris
6 hours ago
How the eight up votes?
– Kris
6 hours ago
1
1
@Hot Licks The average person may also be tempted to say "average".
– henning
2 hours ago
@Hot Licks The average person may also be tempted to say "average".
– henning
2 hours ago
1
1
'Aversion' is not the obvious noun form for 'aver' because as you say 'avert' is the verb that corresponds to 'aversion' and there fore there is no blocking. 'Aversion' is only thought of first due to coincidentally very similar pronunciation. So there's no conflict. But to answer your secondary question (if there were such a 'blocking') the name for it would be something like 'bleeding order', the ordering of rules such that the 1st rule removes things from a 2nd naturally following rule from being applied. 'feeding order' is where a rule changes things so that the 2nd rule applies.
– Mitch
1 hour ago
'Aversion' is not the obvious noun form for 'aver' because as you say 'avert' is the verb that corresponds to 'aversion' and there fore there is no blocking. 'Aversion' is only thought of first due to coincidentally very similar pronunciation. So there's no conflict. But to answer your secondary question (if there were such a 'blocking') the name for it would be something like 'bleeding order', the ordering of rules such that the 1st rule removes things from a 2nd naturally following rule from being applied. 'feeding order' is where a rule changes things so that the 2nd rule applies.
– Mitch
1 hour ago
|
show 1 more comment
2 Answers
2
active
oldest
votes
up vote
22
down vote
The noun form is
averment
- (Law) A formal statement by a party in a case of a fact or circumstance which the party offers to prove or substantiate.
(ODO)
Origin of averment:
1400–50; late Middle English averrement < Middle French. See aver, -ment.
-ment suffix usage origin:
suffix forming nouns, originally from French and representing Latin -mentum, which was added to verb stems sometimes to represent the result or product of the action.
answered 20 hours ago
user240918
23k861143
Is it etymologically obvious why -ment is the appropriate noun form, and not -ion?
– feetwet
20 hours ago
3
@feetwet - the term, together with the suffix, is from French.
– user240918
20 hours ago
1
@feetwet: Aver doesn’t fit in any of the patterns of other words that form nouns with -ion. E.g. the closest comparisons one might think of, conversion, aversion, and reversion, come from convert, avert, revert respectively, and aver doesn’t end analogously to these. Digging back, this is there’s a range of Latin root verbs that form -tion and -sion nouns, and aver doesn’t come from one of these roots (although it does come from Old French/Latin).
– PLL
7 hours ago
add a comment |
up vote
18
down vote
There are two noun forms. The everyday one is averral, meaning an act of averring; but there is also averment, which has more of a legalistic flavour, as described in user240918's answer.
Edited to add: It seems from the comments that I am wrong about averral, at least as far as all the dictionaries in the world are concerned. I shall just have to stop using it, I suppose.
By the way, aversion is by no means the obvious noun form of aver. For example, from infer we get inference; from deter we get deterrence; from confer we get conferral or conferment. If you tried to use infersion, detersion or confersion, nobody would even know what you were trying to say!
answered 16 hours ago
TonyK
1,84239
2
averral is non-standard.
– Kris
6 hours ago
@Kris: For me, it'savermentthat's non-standard. But I must admit that Google Ngrams agrees with you!
– TonyK
5 hours ago
Averral appears to be a rare term, and unlike averment, is not present in more common dictionaries. google.it/…
– user240918
2 hours ago
2
@TonyK - Merriam Webster and Oxford Dictionaries online disagree. Both have averment, neither has averral (the latter redirects this, though, so they're aware of it).
– T.J. Crowder
2 hours ago
Doh! And ngram does as well. Not that either term is really popular. :-)
– T.J. Crowder
2 hours ago
|
show 2 more comments
2 Answers
2
active
oldest
votes
2 Answers
2
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
up vote
22
down vote
The noun form is
averment
- (Law) A formal statement by a party in a case of a fact or circumstance which the party offers to prove or substantiate.
(ODO)
Origin of averment:
1400–50; late Middle English averrement < Middle French. See aver, -ment.
-ment suffix usage origin:
suffix forming nouns, originally from French and representing Latin -mentum, which was added to verb stems sometimes to represent the result or product of the action.
answered 20 hours ago
user240918
23k861143
Is it etymologically obvious why -ment is the appropriate noun form, and not -ion?
– feetwet
20 hours ago
3
@feetwet - the term, together with the suffix, is from French.
– user240918
20 hours ago
1
@feetwet: Aver doesn’t fit in any of the patterns of other words that form nouns with -ion. E.g. the closest comparisons one might think of, conversion, aversion, and reversion, come from convert, avert, revert respectively, and aver doesn’t end analogously to these. Digging back, this is there’s a range of Latin root verbs that form -tion and -sion nouns, and aver doesn’t come from one of these roots (although it does come from Old French/Latin).
– PLL
7 hours ago
add a comment |
up vote
22
down vote
The noun form is
averment
- (Law) A formal statement by a party in a case of a fact or circumstance which the party offers to prove or substantiate.
(ODO)
Origin of averment:
1400–50; late Middle English averrement < Middle French. See aver, -ment.
-ment suffix usage origin:
suffix forming nouns, originally from French and representing Latin -mentum, which was added to verb stems sometimes to represent the result or product of the action.
answered 20 hours ago
user240918
23k861143
Is it etymologically obvious why -ment is the appropriate noun form, and not -ion?
– feetwet
20 hours ago
3
@feetwet - the term, together with the suffix, is from French.
– user240918
20 hours ago
1
@feetwet: Aver doesn’t fit in any of the patterns of other words that form nouns with -ion. E.g. the closest comparisons one might think of, conversion, aversion, and reversion, come from convert, avert, revert respectively, and aver doesn’t end analogously to these. Digging back, this is there’s a range of Latin root verbs that form -tion and -sion nouns, and aver doesn’t come from one of these roots (although it does come from Old French/Latin).
– PLL
7 hours ago
add a comment |
up vote
22
down vote
up vote
22
down vote
The noun form is
averment
- (Law) A formal statement by a party in a case of a fact or circumstance which the party offers to prove or substantiate.
(ODO)
Origin of averment:
1400–50; late Middle English averrement < Middle French. See aver, -ment.
-ment suffix usage origin:
suffix forming nouns, originally from French and representing Latin -mentum, which was added to verb stems sometimes to represent the result or product of the action.
answered 20 hours ago
user240918
23k861143
The noun form is
averment
- (Law) A formal statement by a party in a case of a fact or circumstance which the party offers to prove or substantiate.
(ODO)
Origin of averment:
1400–50; late Middle English averrement < Middle French. See aver, -ment.
-ment suffix usage origin:
suffix forming nouns, originally from French and representing Latin -mentum, which was added to verb stems sometimes to represent the result or product of the action.
answered 20 hours ago
user240918
23k861143
edited 20 hours ago
answered 20 hours ago
user240918
23k861143
answered 20 hours ago
user240918
23k861143
answered 20 hours ago
user240918
23k861143
23k861143
Is it etymologically obvious why -ment is the appropriate noun form, and not -ion?
– feetwet
20 hours ago
3
@feetwet - the term, together with the suffix, is from French.
– user240918
20 hours ago
1
@feetwet: Aver doesn’t fit in any of the patterns of other words that form nouns with -ion. E.g. the closest comparisons one might think of, conversion, aversion, and reversion, come from convert, avert, revert respectively, and aver doesn’t end analogously to these. Digging back, this is there’s a range of Latin root verbs that form -tion and -sion nouns, and aver doesn’t come from one of these roots (although it does come from Old French/Latin).
– PLL
7 hours ago
add a comment |
Is it etymologically obvious why -ment is the appropriate noun form, and not -ion?
– feetwet
20 hours ago
3
@feetwet - the term, together with the suffix, is from French.
– user240918
20 hours ago
1
@feetwet: Aver doesn’t fit in any of the patterns of other words that form nouns with -ion. E.g. the closest comparisons one might think of, conversion, aversion, and reversion, come from convert, avert, revert respectively, and aver doesn’t end analogously to these. Digging back, this is there’s a range of Latin root verbs that form -tion and -sion nouns, and aver doesn’t come from one of these roots (although it does come from Old French/Latin).
– PLL
7 hours ago
Is it etymologically obvious why -ment is the appropriate noun form, and not -ion?
– feetwet
20 hours ago
Is it etymologically obvious why -ment is the appropriate noun form, and not -ion?
– feetwet
20 hours ago
3
3
@feetwet - the term, together with the suffix, is from French.
– user240918
20 hours ago
@feetwet - the term, together with the suffix, is from French.
– user240918
20 hours ago
1
1
@feetwet: Aver doesn’t fit in any of the patterns of other words that form nouns with -ion. E.g. the closest comparisons one might think of, conversion, aversion, and reversion, come from convert, avert, revert respectively, and aver doesn’t end analogously to these. Digging back, this is there’s a range of Latin root verbs that form -tion and -sion nouns, and aver doesn’t come from one of these roots (although it does come from Old French/Latin).
– PLL
7 hours ago
@feetwet: Aver doesn’t fit in any of the patterns of other words that form nouns with -ion. E.g. the closest comparisons one might think of, conversion, aversion, and reversion, come from convert, avert, revert respectively, and aver doesn’t end analogously to these. Digging back, this is there’s a range of Latin root verbs that form -tion and -sion nouns, and aver doesn’t come from one of these roots (although it does come from Old French/Latin).
– PLL
7 hours ago
add a comment |
up vote
18
down vote
There are two noun forms. The everyday one is averral, meaning an act of averring; but there is also averment, which has more of a legalistic flavour, as described in user240918's answer.
Edited to add: It seems from the comments that I am wrong about averral, at least as far as all the dictionaries in the world are concerned. I shall just have to stop using it, I suppose.
By the way, aversion is by no means the obvious noun form of aver. For example, from infer we get inference; from deter we get deterrence; from confer we get conferral or conferment. If you tried to use infersion, detersion or confersion, nobody would even know what you were trying to say!
answered 16 hours ago
TonyK
1,84239
2
averral is non-standard.
– Kris
6 hours ago
@Kris: For me, it'savermentthat's non-standard. But I must admit that Google Ngrams agrees with you!
– TonyK
5 hours ago
Averral appears to be a rare term, and unlike averment, is not present in more common dictionaries. google.it/…
– user240918
2 hours ago
2
@TonyK - Merriam Webster and Oxford Dictionaries online disagree. Both have averment, neither has averral (the latter redirects this, though, so they're aware of it).
– T.J. Crowder
2 hours ago
Doh! And ngram does as well. Not that either term is really popular. :-)
– T.J. Crowder
2 hours ago
|
show 2 more comments
up vote
18
down vote
There are two noun forms. The everyday one is averral, meaning an act of averring; but there is also averment, which has more of a legalistic flavour, as described in user240918's answer.
Edited to add: It seems from the comments that I am wrong about averral, at least as far as all the dictionaries in the world are concerned. I shall just have to stop using it, I suppose.
By the way, aversion is by no means the obvious noun form of aver. For example, from infer we get inference; from deter we get deterrence; from confer we get conferral or conferment. If you tried to use infersion, detersion or confersion, nobody would even know what you were trying to say!
answered 16 hours ago
TonyK
1,84239
2
averral is non-standard.
– Kris
6 hours ago
@Kris: For me, it'savermentthat's non-standard. But I must admit that Google Ngrams agrees with you!
– TonyK
5 hours ago
Averral appears to be a rare term, and unlike averment, is not present in more common dictionaries. google.it/…
– user240918
2 hours ago
2
@TonyK - Merriam Webster and Oxford Dictionaries online disagree. Both have averment, neither has averral (the latter redirects this, though, so they're aware of it).
– T.J. Crowder
2 hours ago
Doh! And ngram does as well. Not that either term is really popular. :-)
– T.J. Crowder
2 hours ago
|
show 2 more comments
up vote
18
down vote
up vote
18
down vote
There are two noun forms. The everyday one is averral, meaning an act of averring; but there is also averment, which has more of a legalistic flavour, as described in user240918's answer.
Edited to add: It seems from the comments that I am wrong about averral, at least as far as all the dictionaries in the world are concerned. I shall just have to stop using it, I suppose.
By the way, aversion is by no means the obvious noun form of aver. For example, from infer we get inference; from deter we get deterrence; from confer we get conferral or conferment. If you tried to use infersion, detersion or confersion, nobody would even know what you were trying to say!
answered 16 hours ago
TonyK
1,84239
There are two noun forms. The everyday one is averral, meaning an act of averring; but there is also averment, which has more of a legalistic flavour, as described in user240918's answer.
Edited to add: It seems from the comments that I am wrong about averral, at least as far as all the dictionaries in the world are concerned. I shall just have to stop using it, I suppose.
By the way, aversion is by no means the obvious noun form of aver. For example, from infer we get inference; from deter we get deterrence; from confer we get conferral or conferment. If you tried to use infersion, detersion or confersion, nobody would even know what you were trying to say!
answered 16 hours ago
TonyK
1,84239
edited 1 hour ago
answered 16 hours ago
TonyK
1,84239
answered 16 hours ago
TonyK
1,84239
answered 16 hours ago
TonyK
1,84239
1,84239
2
averral is non-standard.
– Kris
6 hours ago
@Kris: For me, it'savermentthat's non-standard. But I must admit that Google Ngrams agrees with you!
– TonyK
5 hours ago
Averral appears to be a rare term, and unlike averment, is not present in more common dictionaries. google.it/…
– user240918
2 hours ago
2
@TonyK - Merriam Webster and Oxford Dictionaries online disagree. Both have averment, neither has averral (the latter redirects this, though, so they're aware of it).
– T.J. Crowder
2 hours ago
Doh! And ngram does as well. Not that either term is really popular. :-)
– T.J. Crowder
2 hours ago
|
show 2 more comments
2
averral is non-standard.
– Kris
6 hours ago
@Kris: For me, it'savermentthat's non-standard. But I must admit that Google Ngrams agrees with you!
– TonyK
5 hours ago
Averral appears to be a rare term, and unlike averment, is not present in more common dictionaries. google.it/…
– user240918
2 hours ago
2
@TonyK - Merriam Webster and Oxford Dictionaries online disagree. Both have averment, neither has averral (the latter redirects this, though, so they're aware of it).
– T.J. Crowder
2 hours ago
Doh! And ngram does as well. Not that either term is really popular. :-)
– T.J. Crowder
2 hours ago
2
2
averral is non-standard.
– Kris
6 hours ago
averral is non-standard.
– Kris
6 hours ago
@Kris: For me, it's
averment that's non-standard. But I must admit that Google Ngrams agrees with you!– TonyK
5 hours ago
@Kris: For me, it's
averment that's non-standard. But I must admit that Google Ngrams agrees with you!– TonyK
5 hours ago
Averral appears to be a rare term, and unlike averment, is not present in more common dictionaries. google.it/…
– user240918
2 hours ago
Averral appears to be a rare term, and unlike averment, is not present in more common dictionaries. google.it/…
– user240918
2 hours ago
2
2
@TonyK - Merriam Webster and Oxford Dictionaries online disagree. Both have averment, neither has averral (the latter redirects this, though, so they're aware of it).
– T.J. Crowder
2 hours ago
@TonyK - Merriam Webster and Oxford Dictionaries online disagree. Both have averment, neither has averral (the latter redirects this, though, so they're aware of it).
– T.J. Crowder
2 hours ago
Doh! And ngram does as well. Not that either term is really popular. :-)
– T.J. Crowder
2 hours ago
Doh! And ngram does as well. Not that either term is really popular. :-)
– T.J. Crowder
2 hours ago
|
show 2 more comments
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2
One is, of course, tempted to say "aversion", but one should have an aversion to that.
– Hot Licks
15 hours ago
Where all have you looked for an answer?
– Kris
6 hours ago
2
How the eight up votes?
– Kris
6 hours ago
1
@Hot Licks The average person may also be tempted to say "average".
– henning
2 hours ago
1
'Aversion' is not the obvious noun form for 'aver' because as you say 'avert' is the verb that corresponds to 'aversion' and there fore there is no blocking. 'Aversion' is only thought of first due to coincidentally very similar pronunciation. So there's no conflict. But to answer your secondary question (if there were such a 'blocking') the name for it would be something like 'bleeding order', the ordering of rules such that the 1st rule removes things from a 2nd naturally following rule from being applied. 'feeding order' is where a rule changes things so that the 2nd rule applies.
– Mitch
1 hour ago