The word 'has' usage [on hold]
In British English, is the word "has" ever used? Seems not, because of a slight difference in AmE and BritE noun-verb agreement structure.
grammar
asked yesterday
Paul DavisPaul Davis
1
New contributor
Paul Davis is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.
put on hold as unclear what you're asking by curiousdannii, jimm101, Skooba, sumelic, choster 12 hours ago
Please clarify your specific problem or add additional details to highlight exactly what you need. As it's currently written, it’s hard to tell exactly what you're asking. See the How to Ask page for help clarifying this question. If this question can be reworded to fit the rules in the help center, please edit the question.
add a comment |
In British English, is the word "has" ever used? Seems not, because of a slight difference in AmE and BritE noun-verb agreement structure.
grammar
asked yesterday
Paul DavisPaul Davis
1
New contributor
Paul Davis is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.
put on hold as unclear what you're asking by curiousdannii, jimm101, Skooba, sumelic, choster 12 hours ago
Please clarify your specific problem or add additional details to highlight exactly what you need. As it's currently written, it’s hard to tell exactly what you're asking. See the How to Ask page for help clarifying this question. If this question can be reworded to fit the rules in the help center, please edit the question.
Of course it is. Can you give an example of the 'slight difference' you have in mind?
– Kate Bunting
21 hours ago
The slight difference I was referring to: (example) British speakers-as well as most English speakers worldwide-use 'have' almost exclusively in past participle usage (I'm not a grammarian lol), based on the assumption that the subject is almost always considered plural. (British: "Congress have been busy today,") as opposed to (American:"Congress has been busy today).
– Paul Davis
15 hours ago
Then your question should have been about whether a body of people is referred to as singular or plural. Of course 'has' is used as the third person singular of 'to have'.
– Kate Bunting
10 hours ago
Thanks. I've got my answer.
– Paul Davis
34 mins ago
add a comment |
In British English, is the word "has" ever used? Seems not, because of a slight difference in AmE and BritE noun-verb agreement structure.
grammar
asked yesterday
Paul DavisPaul Davis
1
New contributor
Paul Davis is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.
In British English, is the word "has" ever used? Seems not, because of a slight difference in AmE and BritE noun-verb agreement structure.
grammar
grammar
asked yesterday
Paul DavisPaul Davis
1
New contributor
Paul Davis is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.
asked yesterday
Paul DavisPaul Davis
1
New contributor
Paul Davis is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.
asked yesterday
Paul DavisPaul Davis
1
New contributor
Paul Davis is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.
asked yesterday
Paul DavisPaul Davis
1
asked yesterday
Paul DavisPaul Davis
1
1
New contributor
Paul Davis is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.
New contributor
Paul Davis is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.
Paul Davis is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.
put on hold as unclear what you're asking by curiousdannii, jimm101, Skooba, sumelic, choster 12 hours ago
Please clarify your specific problem or add additional details to highlight exactly what you need. As it's currently written, it’s hard to tell exactly what you're asking. See the How to Ask page for help clarifying this question. If this question can be reworded to fit the rules in the help center, please edit the question.
put on hold as unclear what you're asking by curiousdannii, jimm101, Skooba, sumelic, choster 12 hours ago
Please clarify your specific problem or add additional details to highlight exactly what you need. As it's currently written, it’s hard to tell exactly what you're asking. See the How to Ask page for help clarifying this question. If this question can be reworded to fit the rules in the help center, please edit the question.
Of course it is. Can you give an example of the 'slight difference' you have in mind?
– Kate Bunting
21 hours ago
The slight difference I was referring to: (example) British speakers-as well as most English speakers worldwide-use 'have' almost exclusively in past participle usage (I'm not a grammarian lol), based on the assumption that the subject is almost always considered plural. (British: "Congress have been busy today,") as opposed to (American:"Congress has been busy today).
– Paul Davis
15 hours ago
Then your question should have been about whether a body of people is referred to as singular or plural. Of course 'has' is used as the third person singular of 'to have'.
– Kate Bunting
10 hours ago
Thanks. I've got my answer.
– Paul Davis
34 mins ago
add a comment |
Of course it is. Can you give an example of the 'slight difference' you have in mind?
– Kate Bunting
21 hours ago
The slight difference I was referring to: (example) British speakers-as well as most English speakers worldwide-use 'have' almost exclusively in past participle usage (I'm not a grammarian lol), based on the assumption that the subject is almost always considered plural. (British: "Congress have been busy today,") as opposed to (American:"Congress has been busy today).
– Paul Davis
15 hours ago
Then your question should have been about whether a body of people is referred to as singular or plural. Of course 'has' is used as the third person singular of 'to have'.
– Kate Bunting
10 hours ago
Thanks. I've got my answer.
– Paul Davis
34 mins ago
Of course it is. Can you give an example of the 'slight difference' you have in mind?
– Kate Bunting
21 hours ago
Of course it is. Can you give an example of the 'slight difference' you have in mind?
– Kate Bunting
21 hours ago
The slight difference I was referring to: (example) British speakers-as well as most English speakers worldwide-use 'have' almost exclusively in past participle usage (I'm not a grammarian lol), based on the assumption that the subject is almost always considered plural. (British: "Congress have been busy today,") as opposed to (American:"Congress has been busy today).
– Paul Davis
15 hours ago
The slight difference I was referring to: (example) British speakers-as well as most English speakers worldwide-use 'have' almost exclusively in past participle usage (I'm not a grammarian lol), based on the assumption that the subject is almost always considered plural. (British: "Congress have been busy today,") as opposed to (American:"Congress has been busy today).
– Paul Davis
15 hours ago
Then your question should have been about whether a body of people is referred to as singular or plural. Of course 'has' is used as the third person singular of 'to have'.
– Kate Bunting
10 hours ago
Then your question should have been about whether a body of people is referred to as singular or plural. Of course 'has' is used as the third person singular of 'to have'.
– Kate Bunting
10 hours ago
Thanks. I've got my answer.
– Paul Davis
34 mins ago
Thanks. I've got my answer.
– Paul Davis
34 mins ago
add a comment |
0
active
oldest
votes
0
active
oldest
votes
0
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
Of course it is. Can you give an example of the 'slight difference' you have in mind?
– Kate Bunting
21 hours ago
The slight difference I was referring to: (example) British speakers-as well as most English speakers worldwide-use 'have' almost exclusively in past participle usage (I'm not a grammarian lol), based on the assumption that the subject is almost always considered plural. (British: "Congress have been busy today,") as opposed to (American:"Congress has been busy today).
– Paul Davis
15 hours ago
Then your question should have been about whether a body of people is referred to as singular or plural. Of course 'has' is used as the third person singular of 'to have'.
– Kate Bunting
10 hours ago
Thanks. I've got my answer.
– Paul Davis
34 mins ago