Breakfast has been over [on hold]
.everyoneloves__top-leaderboard:empty,.everyoneloves__mid-leaderboard:empty,.everyoneloves__bot-mid-leaderboard:empty{ margin-bottom:0;
}
What is the difference between the following two sentences.
Breakfast is over.
Breakfast has been over.
What does has been mean in the second sentence, is it in passive voice.
differences
asked yesterday
Kshitij SinghKshitij Singh
1011
New contributor
Kshitij Singh is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.
put on hold as off-topic by David, choster, JJJ, Cascabel, TrevorD yesterday
This question appears to be off-topic. The users who voted to close gave this specific reason:
- "Please include the research you’ve done, or consider if your question suits our English Language Learners site better. Questions that can be answered using commonly-available references are off-topic." – David, JJJ, Cascabel, TrevorD
If this question can be reworded to fit the rules in the help center, please edit the question.
|
show 1 more comment
What is the difference between the following two sentences.
Breakfast is over.
Breakfast has been over.
What does has been mean in the second sentence, is it in passive voice.
differences
asked yesterday
Kshitij SinghKshitij Singh
1011
New contributor
Kshitij Singh is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.
put on hold as off-topic by David, choster, JJJ, Cascabel, TrevorD yesterday
This question appears to be off-topic. The users who voted to close gave this specific reason:
- "Please include the research you’ve done, or consider if your question suits our English Language Learners site better. Questions that can be answered using commonly-available references are off-topic." – David, JJJ, Cascabel, TrevorD
If this question can be reworded to fit the rules in the help center, please edit the question.
6
The first sentence is normal. The second requires more context. The perfect requires two time references, one after the other. So use of the perfect construction means that some time must have elapsed since the end of breakfast and now, and that that is significant (otherwise, why use the perfect?) So Breakfast has been over for hours or Breakfast has been over since 9 am would make sense, but not just *Breakfast has been over.
– John Lawler
yesterday
Possible duplicate of How do the tenses and aspects in English correspond temporally to one another?
– choster
yesterday
@john I just looked up its meaning and found over is used here as adverb, but what type of adverb it is.
– Kshitij Singh
yesterday
1
@JohnLawler i would say that it does not need 2 time frames but it certainly implies that there are 2 events at hand, and that breakfast is over. Which it is
– Carly
yesterday
Compulsory reading: "How to identify the passive voice"
– RegDwigнt♦
yesterday
|
show 1 more comment
What is the difference between the following two sentences.
Breakfast is over.
Breakfast has been over.
What does has been mean in the second sentence, is it in passive voice.
differences
asked yesterday
Kshitij SinghKshitij Singh
1011
New contributor
Kshitij Singh is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.
What is the difference between the following two sentences.
Breakfast is over.
Breakfast has been over.
What does has been mean in the second sentence, is it in passive voice.
differences
differences
asked yesterday
Kshitij SinghKshitij Singh
1011
New contributor
Kshitij Singh is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.
asked yesterday
Kshitij SinghKshitij Singh
1011
New contributor
Kshitij Singh is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.
asked yesterday
Kshitij SinghKshitij Singh
1011
New contributor
Kshitij Singh is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.
asked yesterday
Kshitij SinghKshitij Singh
1011
asked yesterday
Kshitij SinghKshitij Singh
1011
1011
New contributor
Kshitij Singh is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.
New contributor
Kshitij Singh is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.
Kshitij Singh is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.
put on hold as off-topic by David, choster, JJJ, Cascabel, TrevorD yesterday
This question appears to be off-topic. The users who voted to close gave this specific reason:
- "Please include the research you’ve done, or consider if your question suits our English Language Learners site better. Questions that can be answered using commonly-available references are off-topic." – David, JJJ, Cascabel, TrevorD
If this question can be reworded to fit the rules in the help center, please edit the question.
put on hold as off-topic by David, choster, JJJ, Cascabel, TrevorD yesterday
This question appears to be off-topic. The users who voted to close gave this specific reason:
- "Please include the research you’ve done, or consider if your question suits our English Language Learners site better. Questions that can be answered using commonly-available references are off-topic." – David, JJJ, Cascabel, TrevorD
If this question can be reworded to fit the rules in the help center, please edit the question.
6
The first sentence is normal. The second requires more context. The perfect requires two time references, one after the other. So use of the perfect construction means that some time must have elapsed since the end of breakfast and now, and that that is significant (otherwise, why use the perfect?) So Breakfast has been over for hours or Breakfast has been over since 9 am would make sense, but not just *Breakfast has been over.
– John Lawler
yesterday
Possible duplicate of How do the tenses and aspects in English correspond temporally to one another?
– choster
yesterday
@john I just looked up its meaning and found over is used here as adverb, but what type of adverb it is.
– Kshitij Singh
yesterday
1
@JohnLawler i would say that it does not need 2 time frames but it certainly implies that there are 2 events at hand, and that breakfast is over. Which it is
– Carly
yesterday
Compulsory reading: "How to identify the passive voice"
– RegDwigнt♦
yesterday
|
show 1 more comment
6
The first sentence is normal. The second requires more context. The perfect requires two time references, one after the other. So use of the perfect construction means that some time must have elapsed since the end of breakfast and now, and that that is significant (otherwise, why use the perfect?) So Breakfast has been over for hours or Breakfast has been over since 9 am would make sense, but not just *Breakfast has been over.
– John Lawler
yesterday
Possible duplicate of How do the tenses and aspects in English correspond temporally to one another?
– choster
yesterday
@john I just looked up its meaning and found over is used here as adverb, but what type of adverb it is.
– Kshitij Singh
yesterday
1
@JohnLawler i would say that it does not need 2 time frames but it certainly implies that there are 2 events at hand, and that breakfast is over. Which it is
– Carly
yesterday
Compulsory reading: "How to identify the passive voice"
– RegDwigнt♦
yesterday
6
6
The first sentence is normal. The second requires more context. The perfect requires two time references, one after the other. So use of the perfect construction means that some time must have elapsed since the end of breakfast and now, and that that is significant (otherwise, why use the perfect?) So Breakfast has been over for hours or Breakfast has been over since 9 am would make sense, but not just *Breakfast has been over.
– John Lawler
yesterday
The first sentence is normal. The second requires more context. The perfect requires two time references, one after the other. So use of the perfect construction means that some time must have elapsed since the end of breakfast and now, and that that is significant (otherwise, why use the perfect?) So Breakfast has been over for hours or Breakfast has been over since 9 am would make sense, but not just *Breakfast has been over.
– John Lawler
yesterday
Possible duplicate of How do the tenses and aspects in English correspond temporally to one another?
– choster
yesterday
Possible duplicate of How do the tenses and aspects in English correspond temporally to one another?
– choster
yesterday
@john I just looked up its meaning and found over is used here as adverb, but what type of adverb it is.
– Kshitij Singh
yesterday
@john I just looked up its meaning and found over is used here as adverb, but what type of adverb it is.
– Kshitij Singh
yesterday
1
1
@JohnLawler i would say that it does not need 2 time frames but it certainly implies that there are 2 events at hand, and that breakfast is over. Which it is
– Carly
yesterday
@JohnLawler i would say that it does not need 2 time frames but it certainly implies that there are 2 events at hand, and that breakfast is over. Which it is
– Carly
yesterday
Compulsory reading: "How to identify the passive voice"
– RegDwigнt♦
yesterday
Compulsory reading: "How to identify the passive voice"
– RegDwigнt♦
yesterday
|
show 1 more comment
1 Answer
1
active
oldest
votes
"is" is the copula to be. Just know that in language "copulas" link things together, and the etymology comes from Latin for "to link" (think couple).
Breakfast <--link--> over.
Breakfast's over.
The only time you would modify a sentence to a fairly complex construction like the perfect tense is if you want to highlight that difference between the default and the constructed. The present perfect is used when "generally denoting something that took place prior to the present moment." Or in this case, that breakfast is simply over, versus that the time [tense!] since breakfast "became" over, which the speaker asserts was with certainty in the past.
Breakfast <-- link that occurred some time in the past --> over.
The "has" is there as the conjugated form of the helper verb "to have", and does not hold any semantic value beyond that function, I would say.
No, it is not in any specific voice (technically it is active, but not really).
answered yesterday
CarlyCarly
1,607213
add a comment |
1 Answer
1
active
oldest
votes
1 Answer
1
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
"is" is the copula to be. Just know that in language "copulas" link things together, and the etymology comes from Latin for "to link" (think couple).
Breakfast <--link--> over.
Breakfast's over.
The only time you would modify a sentence to a fairly complex construction like the perfect tense is if you want to highlight that difference between the default and the constructed. The present perfect is used when "generally denoting something that took place prior to the present moment." Or in this case, that breakfast is simply over, versus that the time [tense!] since breakfast "became" over, which the speaker asserts was with certainty in the past.
Breakfast <-- link that occurred some time in the past --> over.
The "has" is there as the conjugated form of the helper verb "to have", and does not hold any semantic value beyond that function, I would say.
No, it is not in any specific voice (technically it is active, but not really).
answered yesterday
CarlyCarly
1,607213
add a comment |
"is" is the copula to be. Just know that in language "copulas" link things together, and the etymology comes from Latin for "to link" (think couple).
Breakfast <--link--> over.
Breakfast's over.
The only time you would modify a sentence to a fairly complex construction like the perfect tense is if you want to highlight that difference between the default and the constructed. The present perfect is used when "generally denoting something that took place prior to the present moment." Or in this case, that breakfast is simply over, versus that the time [tense!] since breakfast "became" over, which the speaker asserts was with certainty in the past.
Breakfast <-- link that occurred some time in the past --> over.
The "has" is there as the conjugated form of the helper verb "to have", and does not hold any semantic value beyond that function, I would say.
No, it is not in any specific voice (technically it is active, but not really).
answered yesterday
CarlyCarly
1,607213
add a comment |
"is" is the copula to be. Just know that in language "copulas" link things together, and the etymology comes from Latin for "to link" (think couple).
Breakfast <--link--> over.
Breakfast's over.
The only time you would modify a sentence to a fairly complex construction like the perfect tense is if you want to highlight that difference between the default and the constructed. The present perfect is used when "generally denoting something that took place prior to the present moment." Or in this case, that breakfast is simply over, versus that the time [tense!] since breakfast "became" over, which the speaker asserts was with certainty in the past.
Breakfast <-- link that occurred some time in the past --> over.
The "has" is there as the conjugated form of the helper verb "to have", and does not hold any semantic value beyond that function, I would say.
No, it is not in any specific voice (technically it is active, but not really).
answered yesterday
CarlyCarly
1,607213
"is" is the copula to be. Just know that in language "copulas" link things together, and the etymology comes from Latin for "to link" (think couple).
Breakfast <--link--> over.
Breakfast's over.
The only time you would modify a sentence to a fairly complex construction like the perfect tense is if you want to highlight that difference between the default and the constructed. The present perfect is used when "generally denoting something that took place prior to the present moment." Or in this case, that breakfast is simply over, versus that the time [tense!] since breakfast "became" over, which the speaker asserts was with certainty in the past.
Breakfast <-- link that occurred some time in the past --> over.
The "has" is there as the conjugated form of the helper verb "to have", and does not hold any semantic value beyond that function, I would say.
No, it is not in any specific voice (technically it is active, but not really).
answered yesterday
CarlyCarly
1,607213
answered yesterday
CarlyCarly
1,607213
answered yesterday
CarlyCarly
1,607213
answered yesterday
CarlyCarly
1,607213
1,607213
add a comment |
add a comment |
6
The first sentence is normal. The second requires more context. The perfect requires two time references, one after the other. So use of the perfect construction means that some time must have elapsed since the end of breakfast and now, and that that is significant (otherwise, why use the perfect?) So Breakfast has been over for hours or Breakfast has been over since 9 am would make sense, but not just *Breakfast has been over.
– John Lawler
yesterday
Possible duplicate of How do the tenses and aspects in English correspond temporally to one another?
– choster
yesterday
@john I just looked up its meaning and found over is used here as adverb, but what type of adverb it is.
– Kshitij Singh
yesterday
1
@JohnLawler i would say that it does not need 2 time frames but it certainly implies that there are 2 events at hand, and that breakfast is over. Which it is
– Carly
yesterday
Compulsory reading: "How to identify the passive voice"
– RegDwigнt♦
yesterday